John 6:4 - was it added by Eusebius?

Eklypised said:

I’ve seen arguments from Michael Rood that the 4th century church father Eusebius added this passage in John to make Jesus’ ministry 3.5 years instead of 70 weeks. John 6:4 mentions the Passover ‘was nigh’ — but Rood explains. “Passover is in the spring, and this verse comes on the heels of the feeding of the 5,000, which occurred in late summer. If anything, it should have referenced the Feast of Tabernacles.

What’s your thoughts on this? And is it of any major importance?

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Michael Rood sounds familiar, like a Hebrew-Roots Movement teacher. If he is that same person I am thinking of, you should steer far from him.

However, regarding the addition in the text, I don't find it credible. It sounds more like a claim to justify some doctrinal position. Does he have evidence that this is true? You have Seven-Day Adventist saying that Constantine changed the Sabbath, but the argument is flat.

Eklypised said:

I’ve seen arguments from Michael Rood that the 4th century church father Eusebius added this passage in John to make Jesus’ ministry 3.5 years instead of 70 weeks. John 6:4 mentions the Passover ‘was nigh’ — but Rood explains. “Passover is in the spring, and this verse comes on the heels of the feeding of the 5,000, which occurred in late summer. If anything, it should have referenced the Feast of Tabernacles.

What’s your thoughts on this? And is it of any major importance?

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According to the Nestle-Aland 28th critical edition there are no textual variants for this verse. So I’m going to say Rood is mistaken.

Eklypised said:

Here’s a 10 min video of him explaining why he thinks that

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Here is the text in the NA28:

John 6:4 (NA28): 4 ἦν δὲ ἐγγὺς τὸ πάσχα, ἡ ἑορτὴ τῶν Ἰουδαίων.*

Here is the critical apparatus:


John 6:3–5 (NA28 Apparatus): 3 ⸀ ουν D W ƒ1.13 565 lat samss ly
⸁ ο Ιησους א2 A K L N Γ Θ Ψ ƒ1.13 565. 579. 700. 892. 1241. 1424
¦ − Δ
¦ txt 66 א* B D W
⸂ εκαθητο εκει ƒ1 565
¦ εκει (− א*) εκαθεζετο 66 א*.2 (D) ƒ13; Epiph
5 ⸉ 66* א D Θ 892
⸆ τον A K Γ Θ ƒ1.13 565. 700. 1241. 1424
¦ txt 66 א B D L N W Δ Ψ 33. 579. 892
⸀ αγορασωσιν 75vid

Notice what’s missing? Any reference to verse 4. This guy doesn’t have a clue of what he’s talking about. Sounds like another money grubbing televangelist.

Decent beard though.

Eklypised said:

I’ve seen arguments from Michael Rood that the 4th century church father Eusebius added this passage in John to make Jesus’ ministry 3.5 years instead of 70 weeks. John 6:4 mentions the Passover ‘was nigh’ — but Rood explains. “Passover is in the spring, and this verse comes on the heels of the feeding of the 5,000, which occurred in late summer. If anything, it should have referenced the Feast of Tabernacles.

What’s your thoughts on this? And is it of any major importance?

Click to expand...

Hi Brother ..Yes I would be careful of teachings that "make you Jewish " and /or make such a big deal on the pronunciations of names , etc. It may lead to a works based salvation and end up with people feeling superior to others because of knowledge . This is what got Paul snared when he was still Saul ..His keeping of the Jewish law ended with him persecuting Christ Jesus . I was also a cultural Christian before Jesus found me . Jesus also understands greek , hebrew , aramaic , english , etc. I do appreciate that even the word "name " has a meaning . It means authority . And of course Yesho , Yeshua , etc. is derived from Joshua which I believe means " God is salvation . " Maybe the brother with a better understanding with languages than me .
I trust that He who started a work in you will finish it until the return of our Lord .

Athanasius377 said:

According to the Nestle-Aland 28th critical edition there are no textual variants for this verse. So I’m going to say Rood is mistaken.

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Yes both major manuscript traditions contain this verse.

NeedyFollower said:

Hi Brother ..Yes I would be careful of teachings that "make you Jewish " and /or make such a big deal on the pronunciations of names , etc. It may lead to a works based salvation and end up with people feeling superior to others because of knowledge . This is what got Paul snared when he was still Saul ..His keeping of the Jewish law ended with him persecuting Christ Jesus . I was also a cultural Christian before Jesus found me . Jesus also understands greek , hebrew , aramaic , english , etc. I do appreciate that even the word "name " has a meaning . It means authority . And of course Yesho , Yeshua , etc. is derived from Joshua which I believe means " God is salvation . " Maybe the brother with a better understanding with languages than me .
I trust that He who started a work in you will finish it until the return of our Lord .

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Well said brother. And you are absolutely correct about the Lord’s name.

To be fair there is some debate regarding the chronology leading up to the Crucifixion of our Lord and how they are resolved but trying to Jettisoning whole sale an entire verse isn’t one of them.

Athanasius377 said:

Well said brother. And you are absolutely correct about the Lord’s name.

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Thank you brother but the thing I said about knowledge making one feel superior is from first hand experience ...what a deceitful snare that religious pride is ! When I think about our dear suffering brothers and sisters in other countries and the early martyrs who sacrificed all for Jesus and then me . I often find me "taking a higher seat at the feast " because of some knowledge but I know that only love gets us an invite . The Lord does not need my knowledge and if have any love , it came from Him , by Him and for Him . Thanks for your comments dear brother . Please remember me in prayer from time to time . And especially the Lord's dear Lamb , the OP who is struggling . Grace and Peace through The Name above all names . Jesus Christ .

NeedyFollower said:

Thank you brother but the thing I said about knowledge making one feel superior is from first hand experience ...what a deceitful snare that religious pride is ! When I think about our dear suffering brothers and sisters in other countries and the early martyrs who sacrificed all for Jesus and then me . I often find me "taking a higher seat at the feast " because of some knowledge but I know that only love gets us an invite . The Lord does not need my knowledge and if have any love , it came from Him , by Him and for Him . Thanks for your comments dear brother . Please remember me in prayer from time to time . And especially the Lord's dear Lamb , the OP who is struggling . Grace and Peace through The Name above all names . Jesus Christ .

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Thanks brother. You are correct. I hope @Eklypised doesn't think I was attacking him. I taught Sunday school and catechism for many years and have a bit of an allergy towards false teaching. I am studying for the ministry so some of this is fresh in my mind. Yet even my correction is tainted with sin and it’s refreshing to hear another brother remind me that some folks are struggling. It is never my intention to feel superior towards any brother in Christ. So if I have come off that way please forgive me. It is my earnest prayer that all would come to know the Lord.

Athanasius377 said:

Here is the text in the NA28:

John 6:4 (NA28): 4 ἦν δὲ ἐγγὺς τὸ πάσχα, ἡ ἑορτὴ τῶν Ἰουδαίων.*

Here is the critical apparatus:


John 6:3–5 (NA28 Apparatus): 3 ⸀ ουν D W ƒ1.13 565 lat samss ly
⸁ ο Ιησους א2 A K L N Γ Θ Ψ ƒ1.13 565. 579. 700. 892. 1241. 1424
¦ − Δ
¦ txt 66 א* B D W
⸂ εκαθητο εκει ƒ1 565
¦ εκει (− א*) εκαθεζετο 66 א*.2 (D) ƒ13; Epiph
5 ⸉ 66* א D Θ 892
⸆ τον A K Γ Θ ƒ1.13 565. 700. 1241. 1424
¦ txt 66 א B D L N W Δ Ψ 33. 579. 892
⸀ αγορασωσιν 75vid

Notice what’s missing? Any reference to verse 4. This guy doesn’t have a clue of what he’s talking about. Sounds like another money grubbing televangelist.

Decent beard though.

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Rood believes the NT was originally written in Hebrew. Other than a passing mention by an early church father of Matthew, I don’t know where Rood substantiates his claims.

redleghunter said:

Rood believes the NT was originally written in Hebrew. Other than a passing mention by an early church father of Matthew, I don’t know where Rood substantiates his claims.

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That seems to be a common theme with some of the Hebrew roots movement. Not all but the ones I’ve seen seem to believe that. Suppose John was originally written in Hebrew. It was not the Lord’s will that it remain in Hebrew otherwise we would have a manuscript. It’s seems to me to be a presupposition That has no foundation in reality. Great point.