Interpreting 1 Corinthians 6:9 by the Book

A.ModerateOne

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"Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind," (1Cor 6:9, KJV)

The textbook used here is 'Principles of Interpretation' by Clinton Lockhart, Revised Edition 1915 - http://icotb.org/resources/PrinciplesofInterpretation.pdf

AXIOM:Every communication of thought, human and divine,-given in the language of men, is subject to the ordinary rules of interpretation.

Proceeding by this axiom, understanding the controversial Greek words for "effeminate" and "abusers of themselves with mankind" requires exacting definitions determined by commonsense rules and principles. The Greek words are malakos translated "effeminate" in the KJV and arsenokoites translated as "abusers of themselves with mankind" KJV. It is interesting that the KJV translators used the word "sodomite(s)" in the Old Testament, but did not use that word in this verse, or anywhere in the New Testament.

RULE :—A correct text of a passage must be obtained before it is interpreted.

The only variations in the texts of this verse are as follows, the word order:

θεοῦ βασιλείαν] WH God kingdom; βασιλείαν θεοῦ] Byz ς kingdom God

RULE:—If a translation be used, it must be an exact equivalent of the original, or the difference must be noted by the interpreter.

"The terms "homosexuality" and "homosexual" are coinages of the 19th century C.E. and have no equivalent in the ancient Hebrew or Greek." page 602, Eerdman's Dictionary of the Bible, c2000. Since there is no equivalent word, there must be a definition of a modern word that matches the NT Greek exactly.

Starting with the Greek malakos, the word means "soft". The word malakos is found in the Greek OT, the LXX four times: Job 23:16 "For the Lord softened my heart..."; 41:3(40:22) "Will he address thee with a petition softly, with the voice of a suppliant?"; Pro 25:15 "In long-suffering is prosperity to kings, and a soft tongue breaks the bones."; 26:22 "The words of cunning knaves are soft; but they smite even to the inmost parts of the bowels."

In the New Testament the word is found twice in Mt. 18:8 "soft raiment" and "soft clothing; in Lk 7:25 once "soft raiment"; and then in the verse under consideration, 1 Cor. 6:9 as "effeminate" KJV.

Most New Testament Lexicons after the #1 definitions of "soft" add something similar to the BDAG "pert. to being passive in a same-sex relationship, effeminate esp. of catamites, of men and boys who are sodomized by other males in such a relationship,"

Yet, there were two ancient Greek words that meant specifically "catamites", and they aren't malakos:

From Liddell-Scott-Jones lexicon of classical Greek - published 1940
"πόρνος , ὁ , catamite, Ar. Pl. 155 , X. Mem. 1.6.13 , D. 22.73 , Alex. 242 , etc."

"κίναιδ-ος [ ῐ], ὁ , catamite , Pl. Grg. 494e , etc.: generally, lewd fellow , Herod. 2.74 , PSI 5.483.1 (iii B.C.) , Arcesil. ap. Plu. 2.126a.
2. public dancer(?), PTeb. 208 (i B.C.) , perh. also CIG 4926 ( Philae ).
3. pl., obscene poems , D.L. 9.110 . II a sea-fish , Plin. HN 32.146 . III = κιναίδιον , Gal. 12.740,800."

Interestingly, the first of the Greek words above is translated as "fornicators" in the verse under consideration, which most modern translations render as "sexually immoral" a rather indefinite translation.

I have yet to see any ancient Greek-English translation in classical Greek that uses malakos with the meaning of "catamite" or anything sexual in that manner. The Liddell-Scott-Jones lexicon of classical Greek definition of malakos can be read online and it does not include "catamite" anywhere in the definitions:
Liddell & Scott

I find it totally irrational to believe Paul used malakos figuratively to mean "catamite" when all the rest of the Greek Bible uses it as soft tongue, soft raiment, etc.; never in a sexual context. Especially since the Greek had a specific word for "catamite". The KJV renders it "effeminate", the literal rendering in the NIV Greek-English Interlinear NT renders it "voluptuous persons" and the New Jerusalem Bible "the self-indulgent". Those 3 words are quite similar as seen in various definitions of "effeminate" and seem to match the NT usage the best.

The second Greek word is arsenokoites and the only overall agreement among translators seems to be it is some type of sin between males, and it is sexual in nature. I try to keep the following rules in mind as I attempt to understand the meaning of the word.

RULE:—In interpreting, the etymological meaning of a word must give place to the current established usage.
RULE:—To determine the usage of a word, consult its occurrences in literature, and depend most on those nearest the passage in point of context, authorship, date and character of composition.
RULE:—The meaning of a rare word, not decided by usage, should be sought first in the etymology, then in early versions, and lastly in kindred tongues.

The word arsenokoites is only found used by Paul in Scripture, and has not been found again until you come to the Sibylline Oracle 2.70-77 where it is used in a context of economic injustice. The date of this work is uncertain but it does not seem to be connected to Paul. It would seem that the word was coined by Paul, and since we have no other uses of it to compare, we are forced to examine the etymology to find the meaning of Paul.

The word is a combination of arsen which is "male" and koites which is "bed". The LXX has koites in various contexts, "marriage bed", "marriage-bed of sperm" and just ordinary bed. In the NT it is found in Heb. 13:4 as "marriage bed", in Rom. 9:10 for conception, both uses normal and moral. But, it is also found in a vice list by Paul:

"Let us walk honestly, as in the day; not in rioting and drunkenness, not in chambering(koites) and wantonness, not in strife and envying." (Rom 13:13, KJV)

The word "chambering" is very suggestive, a womanizer, a frequent visitor of loose women and prostitutes. A. T. Robertson states that the rioting, drunkenness, chambering and wantonness are all plural in the Greek. Matthew Henry states on the word chambering "Downright adultery and fornication are the chambering forbidden." So, it seems clear that the use here is of sexual promiscuity. That gives me an idea what Paul had in mind by coining arsenokoites. The passagae in 1 Co. 6:9 does not list the sins in a manner to use context to help understand the word. But, Paul uses the word also in 1 Tim. 1:10 and in the context there we have the following categories of sin, using the KJV wording.

A. lawless, disobedient, ungodly, sinners, unholy, profane,
B. murderers of fathers, murderers of mothers, manslayers,
C. whoremongers, them that defile themselves with mankind(arsenokoites) for menstealers
D. liars, perjured persons

There are groupings of similar sins here. The word arsenokoites is sandwiched between whoremongers and kidnappers/slave traders. So, added to the earlier idea of promiscuity, the word seems to have an aggressive, abusive or violent dimension. So, it seems the word would mean males who are promiscuous, abusive, aggressive or even violent in sexual relations with other males. So, to my mind, the following two translations are correct.

"Or know ye not that unrighteous men will not inherit [the] kingdom of God? Be not led astray; not fornicators nor idolaters nor adulterers nor voluptuous persons nor sodomites" The NIV Interlinear Greek-English New Testament, the literal rendering.

or:

"Do you not realise that people who do evil will never inherit the kingdom of God? Make no mistake -- the sexually immoral, idolaters, adulterers, the self-indulgent, sodomites" The New Jerusalem Bible, but I'm convinced that instead of "sexually immoral" it should remain "fornicators".

Today's Roget's Thesaurus lists "sodomite" thus: "sexual pervert; pervert, perve <nf>, deviant, deviate, sex pervert, sex fiend, sex criminal, sexual psychopath; sodomist, sodomite, sob <Brit nf>, bugger; pederast; paraphiliac..."

That is the category I find arsenokoites to fit. The Apostle Paul was born A.D 6 and was martyred sometime after A.D. 64 in the persecution. Nero lived A.D. 37 - 68. Read the sexual record of Nero and then consider the these writings of Paul in Rom. 1:26,27; 1 Cor. 6:9 and 1 Tim. 1:10 -
Internet History Sourcebooks Project
 
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Dave-W

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Proceeding by this axiom, understanding the controversial Greek words for "effeminate" and "abusers of themselves with mankind" requires exacting definitions determined by commonsense rules and principles. The Greek words are malakos translated "effeminate" in the KJV and arsenokoites translated as "abusers of themselves with mankind" KJV.
Dr Derek Prince (who was a scholar of ancient greek way before becoming a believer) said common secular usage of malakos indicated the more passive or effeminate partner in a male-male sexual relationship while arsenokoites was the more aggressive or masculine partner.
It is interesting that the KJV translators used the word "sodomite(s)" in the Old Testament, but did not use that word in this verse, or anywhere in the New Testament.
The KJV translators were going from Hebrew in the OT and Greek in the New so it is not surprizing they would word things differently. The 2 languages are very different.
 
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Dave-W

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Today's Roget's Thesaurus lists "sodomite" thus: "sexual pervert; pervert, perve <nf>, deviant, deviate, sex pervert, sex fiend, sex criminal, sexual psychopath; sodomist, sodomite, sob <Brit nf>, bugger; pederast; paraphiliac..."
One should NEVER base biblical doctrine on modern day translation definitions. That is the fast road to error. You have to go on what word was used in the original language, and what it meant to the original audience.

The word translated "sodomite" in Deut 23.17 (and other places in KJV) is קָדֵשׁ kadesh which is related to the word kadosh meaning "holy." The sense is to be set apart. It is used to describe male prostitution in pagan temples.
 
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com7fy8

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Soft can mean like a rotten grape, or soft can mean like leather which is tough but pliant so it can't be broken or pierced. So, a same word can have exact opposite or very different meanings.

So, a soft man can mean someone who gives in to what is wrong. The person's character is soft, so he can give in to arguing and complaining which are abusive and cruel and anti-love.

And soft can mean how a person tones his voice to sound like a woman.

But a soft answer which turns away wrath can be strong so wrath and abuse can not get power over a person who is softly and tenderly loving like Jesus > Jesus is "gentle and lowly in heart", we have in Matthew 11:28-30. But we also know Jesus is almighty against howsoever evil and cruel things would try to get the better of Jesus. And Jesus in us shares this with us > "you will find rest for your souls." (in Matthew 11:28-30)

And so soft can mean how a person can easily give in to anger and abuse and hatred and unforgiveness and arguing and complaining and various harmful and foolish lusts for pleasure. Because a man is not strong in God's love, a man can be unable to handle close sharing with a woman in marriage, and the person can be desperate for pleasure to try to keep him from feeling the misery and confusion of sin's anti-love emotions and feelings.
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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AXIOM:Every communication of thought, human and divine,-given in the language of men, is subject to the ordinary rules of interpretation.
This might be correct in some systems, but not in the Bible nor in Yahuweh's Kingdom.
 
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A.ModerateOne

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Twisting scripture to make it say what you want it to say is still twisting scripture to make it say what you want it to say, no matter how many rules or axioms you invent to make it sound better.

Which Scripture did I twist and in what way. I did not invent these principles of interpretation, they are in a respected textbook on hermeneutics written over 100 years ago and still available in print. An important reason to use such textbooks is to avoid subjectivity as much as possible.
 
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topher694

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Which Scripture did I twist and in what way. I did not invent these principles of interpretation, they are in a respected textbook on hermeneutics written over 100 years ago and still available in print. An important reason to use such textbooks is to avoid subjectivity as much as possible.
All of it is off, and applied inconsistently, hence invented. It's really not worth my time to elaborate further. I've been down that road. I've said my piece.
 
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A.ModerateOne

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Thanks for posting this. I agree with the OP. I reject the idea that effeminate abusers of themselves with mankind is meant to mean homosexuals because most homosexuals are not abusive.

Thank you for your kind words, Gerbil Queen. It is obvious I am not a liberal; but, I am definitely not a fundamentalist either; I consider myself well-balanced, a moderate. I have a high view of God's word and strive to use recognized, standard principles of sound interpretation. It appears this group is the only place where it is allowed for one to write a more solid alternative to the typical evangelical view of these passages. I was accused of twisting Scripture and the errors of modern versions; an accusation given without examples so that I can think about and revise when I am wrong. I quoted two modern translations where the word "effeminate" of 1 Cor. 6:9 in the KJV; was rendered "the self-indulgent" or "voluptuous ones". Did that twist Scripture? Not at all! A couple of definitions show this:

adjective
1 (of a man or boy) having traits, tastes, habits, etc., traditionally considered feminine, as softness or delicacy.
2 characterized by excessive softness, delicacy, self-indulgence, etc.: effeminate luxury.
Definition of effeminate | Dictionary.com

EFFEM'INATE, adjective [Latin effoeminatus, from effoeminor, to grow or make womanish, from foemina, a woman. See Woman.]
1. Having the qualities of the female sex; soft or delicate to an unmanly degree; tender; womanish; voluptuous.
The king, by his voluptuous life and mean marriage, became effeminate and less sensible of honor.
Websters Dictionary 1828 - Webster's Dictionary 1828 - effeminate

The KJV, RV, ASV, YLT, EBR, Douay, all translate malakos as "effeminate". The NASB translates also by "effeminate" but adds the Footnote: "a. 1 Corinthians 6:9 i.e. effeminate by perversion".

That to me is an example of twisting the Scripture, inventing an odd-ball definition for "effeminate".

What you have with the religious 'right-wingers' is what is described in the following:

"Doctrinaire prejudices, which at the same time distort the theological problem presented by homosexuality, manifest themselves also in the fact that the value-judgment "homosexuality is sinful" is not isolated from an objective assessment of the phenomenon but is rather projected into it, and the result is that one arrives at an a priori defamation of those who are afflicted with this anomaly." page 270 - German theologian Helmut Thielicke in his 1964 book, "The Ethics of Sex".
 
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hedrick

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Dr Derek Prince (who was a scholar of ancient greek way before becoming a believer) said common secular usage of malakos indicated the more passive or effeminate partner in a male-male sexual relationship while arsenokoites was the more aggressive or masculine partner.
This seems to be a growing opinion. If there's clear evidence, though, I haven't seen it. Note that in the sin list in 1 Tim only arsenokoites is used. I'm personally not convinced that we have good enough evidence to establish any specific meaning, whether male prostitute, the active partner, or anything else. It seems very likely that it's sexual sin involving a male.

Note that today we'd consider the passive partner in the Roman context to be a victim. It was normally a youth or slave, i.e. someone who probably didn't have much control. If Paul was thinking specifically in those terms it would be odd to include both partners. (Of course he may not have been using the same ethical reasoning that we'd use today.)
 
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