Where is the biblical proof for a private prayer language in tongues?

FenderTL5

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This is the only place that tells us about some kind of angelic language. However, IMO it has been severely misunderstood. Angels, who are messengers of God, have always spoken in the language of the person they were delivering a message to. So in short, there is no angel language.
"1Co13:1 "If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels, but have not love, I am a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal."
Yes that verse is hyperbole, a variation of which is still in use today such as; "She sings like an angel.." It's meant as an exaggeration to make the point.
 
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Before I chime in on this with an answer, are you likely to actually read and consider my words? Or will they be summarily used for target practice?
I, too, am reluctant to participate as this seems like a set up for proof texting how wrong I will be.
 
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This is my take on the subject of tongues and just so I do not get scolded by others, I spoke in tongues in the early 80's at the moment of conversion and I knew nothing about it at the time, it just happened. That being said, as a new believer I took that experience with me privately during my morning worship. Everyday I would say things without my understanding. Finally after a period of time I realized that I was not speaking to God because He could not understand me, it was fruitless. This is precisely what Paul was speaking of when he said "to pray with your understanding". Though he said it was between you and God, I would say how can anyone speak to God without their understanding.
Now I know I run the risk of push back on this but I must tell the truth of this matter when it pertains to my own experience.

I believe the Bible trumps experience. There are many deceptions out there. Just because a person had a vision of Jesus does not mean it was the Jesus of the Bible. Granted, I am not saying your experience was not of God; But I am also saying that the Bible appears to lean heavily towards the view that the miraculous gifts have ceased, as well. To make matters worse, there is no real biblical support for a private prayer language done in tongues. Only one verse loosley appears to suggest it and the Bible is confirmed by 2 or 3 witnesses.
 
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you mean like the biblical support for cessationism?

I prefer the term "Partial Cessationism."
Anyways, if you are on the side that says that there is a private prayer done in tongues, then why are you refusing to provide any such verses?
 
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Basically we need a verse or passage that says something below like this
to support a "Private Prayer Done in Tongues":

"And so then Paul being all alone spoke to God in tongues giving the Lord the glory."​

or something like this:

"We command that if you have the gift of tongues, do not neglect to pray in tongues behind closed doors."​

So far, we see nothing written like this in the Bible.

It can be just as equally true that the phrase "let him speak to himself and to God" can be in reference to praying with the understanding of which Paul shares as a part of his own experiential advice.

"What is it then? I will pray with the spirit,
and I will pray with the understanding also." (1 Corinthians 14:15).
 
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We also have to ask that if God condemns not having an interpreter so as to give understanding in a public prayer of tongues (i.e. the speaking of a foreign language) in the church body, then why doesn't God condemn such a thing in private? Is not the main reason why tongues are condemned because it is a cause of confusion because nobody understands what is being said? Are we not to love others as we love ourself?
 
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One more thing and this is really important in demolishing the idea that there is a private prayer done in tongues.

Tongues are not for those who believe, but tongues are for the unbeliever.

21 "With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not"
(1 Corinthians 14:21-22).​

Not sure if you caught it. This passage says that tongues are to them that believe not. Meaning, tongues were a sign to the Jews who did not accept their Messiah.

Think of... the Jewish Exile.

They could not understand the enemies that they were in captivity to.

Think of... the Tower of Babel.

It was a sign of judgment against them when everyone could not understand each other.
 
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His student

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............."And so then Paul being all alone spoke to God in tongues giving the Lord the glory."
or something like this:
"We command that if you have the gift of tongues, do not neglect to pray in tongues behind closed doors."
So far, we see nothing written like this in the Bible.
My favorite verse on the truth of the Trinity is as follows:

"The one true God exists eternally as three distinct persons each person possessing within Himself all of the attributes required that He might rightfully refer to Himself as the one true God."

I can't remember exactly where it says that or the equivalent of that. Can you help me out? I wouldn't want to incur your wrath for building a doctrine on the systematic consideration of several different passages as you have taken others here to task for doing.

Another favorite is where it says:

"Jesus Christ in the incarnation of God and is fully God and fully man in hypo static union."

I'm sure we both see that in the scriptures. But could you please provide the verse for me where it says exactly that?
The point of the tongues speaking was for evangelism purposes.
Can you provide for us the verse that says exactly that as per your examples above?

But --- assuming for a moment that that is true --- perhaps that would explain the explosion of success in evangelism being experienced by Pentecostal groups in areas of the world where all other groups are in decline for the most part.
Hence, why God is not the author of confusion.
This means that there is no private prayer tongues language.
Nonsense - the verse says no such thing.:scratch:
in Acts 2; they were clearly speaking known foreign languages.
No they were not clearly speaking in foreign tongues. They were being heard as speaking in foreign tongues. Big difference.

The idea that John spoke spontaneously in, say, French just as a couple of Frenchmen walked close to him and heard him so speaking; and Andrew spoke in, say, Latin just as a few Latin types walked close to him and heard him so speaking; and Matthew spoke in, say, German just as a couple of Germans walked close to him and heard him so speaking; etc. etc. is simply preposterous.

The emphasis in the passage is that God allowed certain people (the elect if you will) to hear the disciples in their own language and understand what was being said about Jesus while others were not provided that personal understanding and thought them drunk and just babbling.

I've spent many a day at a Seattle market where many languages are routinely heard as people walk by. Very similar, I suppose, to the Jerusalem environment on the day of Pentecost.

While God has never given me the ability to understand what they were saying in my own language - neither have I ever once thought that the people I heard speaking in Japanese or Chinese were drunk at 9 o'clock in the morning.

People often read into passages what they want to read into them when it really make no sense to do so. Acts 2 is one of those instances where it is often done.

People who want to refute tongues of various kinds often say that all of the instances in the Bible are of people speaking in known languages as the Spirit gave them utterance. There is no scripture that tells us that and, frankly, the idea that the family of Cornelius for instance necessarily started spontaneously speaking in Bulgarian or even Hebrew rather than a language that would sound to many as merely babbling as at Pentecost is preposterous as I see it.
This has nothing to do with Biblical tongues spoken on the Day of Pentecost.
Nor does the OP.
From the scriptures however , it seems clear that there was such a thing for otherwise Paul would not acknowledge their abuse .
Amen.
I, too, am reluctant to participate as this seems like a set up for proof texting how wrong I will be.
Me too - but I'm giving my two cents worth anyway. Probably not a wise thing to do. But then I don't need to answer back to any who may comment on this post and may not.
I will say what I've always said about this, that, or the other spiritual manifestation.
What is the FRUIT of it in the person involved and the lives of others?
I agree with you.

Which is why more people here should consider the fact that Pentecostalism and others who speak in tongues and preach about a 2nd experience with the Holy Spirit beyond simple regeneration - are the fastest growing branch of Christianity today. While most of Christianity is in decline - charismatics and those who value tongues for today are multiplying around the world.

There are many areas where evangelism is being done by various groups where the success of these tongues speaking evangelists simply dwarfs all of the other outreach successes combined. :clap::)
 
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Ricky M

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Basically we need a verse or passage that says something below like this
to support a "Private Prayer Done in Tongues":

"And so then Paul being all alone spoke to God in tongues giving the Lord the glory."​

or something like this:

"We command that if you have the gift of tongues, do not neglect to pray in tongues behind closed doors."​

So far, we see nothing written like this in the Bible.

It can be just as equally true that the phrase "let him speak to himself and to God" can be in reference to praying with the understanding of which Paul shares as a part of his own experiential advice.

"What is it then? I will pray with the spirit,
and I will pray with the understanding also." (1 Corinthians 14:15).
No, YOU see nothing written like this. And im sure any effort to show you them will be summarily dismissed without consideration. I did post one answer to this in its own thread, but I'm not going to do that here because you won't consider it anyway
 
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Another important criterion is what doctrine comes with it?

I heard one man who was billed as a prophet.

But his sermon was about how Jesus couldn't perform any miracles after His resurrection because he didn't have a physical body, and the Holy Spirit needs a physical body to manifest through.

Do I have to point out all the errors in this?

But people were eating this garbage with a spoon!

Of course but the bible itself attracts the same looney responses - do we throw that out too? very dangerous...
 
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The Righterzpen

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This is my take on the subject of tongues and just so I do not get scolded by others, I spoke in tongues in the early 80's at the moment of conversion and I knew nothing about it at the time, it just happened. That being said, as a new believer I took that experience with me privately during my morning worship. Everyday I would say things without my understanding. Finally after a period of time I realized that I was not speaking to God because He could not understand me, it was fruitless. This is precisely what Paul was speaking of when he said "to pray with your understanding". Though he said it was between you and God, I would say how can anyone speak to God without their understanding.
Now I know I run the risk of push back on this but I must tell the truth of this matter when it pertains to my own experience.

I agree with @Bible Highlighter here.

We have all kinds of experiences / dreams / visions etc. that come from where ever it is they come from within us. They can be induced by the psyche, drugs, traumatic experiences, lack of sleep, deep seated questions of the soul; etc. The list of possibilities is endless.

I was in a catastrophic car accident in 2010 and it actually made it into my medical record, that I believed I saw Jesus in my hospital room. I'd told the nursing staff to send Him back to me when He returned, because I was convinced He's just gone down stairs to see my son and was wandering around the hospital. Now I was heavily sedated in the ICU; so "Jesus" was either a dream, or a legitimate hallucination caused by massive sedatives and painkillers! LOL. Either way; the nursing staff decided to call a chaplain. At that point, I don't know if they were unsure if I was going to survive? I know they were unsure if I was going to be permanently brain damaged. They were probably also unsure if I was mentally ill? I'd been in that hospital's psych ward about 15 years earlier for a suicide attempt and was diagnosed with PTSD at that time.

At another time (the incident 15 years earlier that had sent me to the hospital); I "heard" God speak to me. The message was so clear it was almost audible. I was sitting up under the support girding of a rather high portion of expressway that spanned a rather large body of water. I was depressed and suffering from lack of sleep caused by nightmares of Desert Storm. I'd said to God that I didn't have the energy to keep going. He "said": I will give that to you. GET OFF THE BRIDGE!

Move back to the 2010 car accident. 6 months later I remembered this "experience" I'd had (probably around the time they'd taken me off the helicopter and into the OR)? It was a "near death experience".

I was standing in this pitch black, when the space in front of me ripped open and this light came spilling out around the form of a male figure dressed in a long garment who was standing in silhouette on the other side of this divide in this place of blinding light. I couldn't see his face; my first thought was "JESUS!" and I started running toward the figure. He said in a rather commanding voice: "No, go back. Your son needs you!" I stopped. I said: "OK" in a rather meek voice and it was over.

The next thing I was aware of were bright lights, people talking and the sound of hospital machines beeping. My chest hurt real bad and then I was out again. I don't know if I'd been "de-fibed"? There was nothing in the hospital record I'd found that said I'd "flat lined" and I'd think something like that would have gotten into the record; but in the chaos of a trauma ER, maybe not? So, I don't know what happened? Was it another dream or a psychiatric event of the mind?

In the past 30 years, the person who shows up most in my dreams is Jesus. He's shown up in every context imaginable, from standing in the grocery store line to having sex with. So, as you can imagine; I have very valid reservations in questing the content of my dreams / visions / and experiences. LOL.

Were "Get off the bridge!" and "Your son needs you." valid messages? Absolutely! But in one sense they were also things that were so obvious I didn't "need to be told". These experiences were very real to me; but I also understand they weren't miraculous manifestations of the Divine either though. These were not messages of Divine revelation; such as people had in the penning of Scripture. Scriptural revelation had a specific purpose of prophecy. (Prophecy simply is to declare the word of God.) This was not that. This was my human existence struggling through events I was facing. I "saw Jesus" a lot back during the war too. These "visions" were figments of my imagination that got me through the next 5 minutes and those things are real to us; but that does not mean they really happened as a breaking of the supernatural barrier between the Divine realm and the earthly.

Do they have value to us? Yeah, they usually do. Yet God is not defined by our experience. He is defined by truth of the Scripture. Will I continue to have these types of experiences? Probably yeah; Jesus still shows up in my dreams. For what ever purpose of processing my life my dreams represent; that's what I take it as. It's an interesting, often comforting and sometimes amusing manifestation of my human psyche; but it's not Divine revelation and therefore I do not treat it as such.
 
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Bible Highlighter

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No they were not clearly speaking in foreign tongues. They were being heard as speaking in foreign tongues.

"There is no question that the tongues in Acts 2 consisted of authentic foreign languages. Luke states, in Acts 2:4, “And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit was giving them utterance.” Luke continues in vv. 9–11 to list some 16 different languages and dialects that were spoken.

Source used:
Sam Storms and Two Types of Tongues

I've spent many a day at a Seattle market where many languages are routinely heard as people walk by. Very similar, I suppose, th Jerusalem environment on the day of Pentecost.

While God has never given me the ability to understand what they were say in my own language - neither have I ever once thought that the people I heard speaking in Japanese or Chinese were drunk at 9 o'clock in the morning.

The 100 + people talking together in close proximity to each other in foreign tongues can lead the casual outside observer to think they are drunk because of the many languages being spoken all at once. But this was not the case for the whole audience, though.

Here is the first group of outside observers:

"Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language." (Acts of the Apostles 2:6).​

And here is the second group of outside observers:

"Others mocking said, These men are full of new wine." (Acts of the Apostles 2:13).​
 
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The Righterzpen

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People who want to refute tongues of various kinds often say that all of the instances in the Bible are of people speaking in known languages as the Spirit gave them utterance. There is no scripture that tells us that and, frankly, the idea that the family of Cornelius for instance necessarily started spontaneously speaking in Bulgarian or even Hebrew rather than a language that would sound to many as merely babbling as at Pentecost is preposterous as I see it.

Regardless of how you attempt to twist the record of the experience of those in the book of Acts; the end product was still that these people heard the apostles in their native tongues.

And some proclaiming they were just drunk did not mean that those who said that did not also hear the apostles in their own native tongue.

5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.

6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.

7 And they were all amazed and marveled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?

8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?

(Note the Scriptures do not say these mockers did not understand the apostles!)

13 Others mocking said, These men are full of new wine.
 
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Vicky gould

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1 Corinthians 15:55-58:

Great stuff isn't it?

I will go back and speak more of your thoughts and to compliment your presentation but now one more Law question how does Paul's claim of not knowing what coveting is or isn't the sin was still in Paul but almost llike a bear hibernating, apply to Eve, Adam, in the Garden? What told them they were naked, uncovered sin, and when the commandment came did all forms of coveting break forth in Eve? Why with coveting in them before she took the forbidden knowledge why was there no condemnation and then condemnation poured out on them and they fled from God not to God. Satan cannot change his ways and attacks men the same way every time. As long as Man stood before God on Grace Satan could not touch him. To remove man from Grace Satan had to get Man to try and stand before God on different ground where there is condemnation. Do you know what ground that is and why God forbid them from gaining that Knowledge and it was Satan why wanted men under that knowledge? I am very muh enjoying talking with you and I will get back to you on your entire post. Thank you and God bless
 
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Ricky M

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My favorite verse on the truth of the Trinity is as follows:

"The one true God exists eternally as three distinct persons each person possessing within Himself all of the attributes required that He might rightfully refer to Himself as the one true God."

I can't remember exactly where it says that or the equivalent of that. Can you help me out? I wouldn't want to incur your wrath for building a doctrine on the systematic consideration of several different passages as you have taken others here to task for doing.

Another favorite is where it says:

"Jesus Christ in the incarnation of God and is fully God and fully man in hypo static union."

I'm sure we both see that in the scriptures. But could you please provide the verse for me where it says exactly that?
Can you provide for us the verse that says exactly that as per your examples above?

But --- assuming for a moment that that is true --- perhaps that would explain the explosion of success in evangelism being experienced by Pentecostal groups in areas of the world where all other groups are in decline for the most part.
Nonsense - the verse says no such thing.:scratch:

No they were not clearly speaking in foreign tongues. They were being heard as speaking in foreign tongues. Big difference.

The idea that John spoke spontaneously in, say, French just as a couple of Frenchmen walked close to him and heard him so speaking; and Andrew spoke in, say, Latin just as a few Latin types walked close to him and heard him so speaking; and Matthew spoke in, say, German just as a couple of Germans walked close to him and heard him so speaking; etc. etc. is simply preposterous.

The emphasis in the passage is that God allowed certain people (the elect if you will) to hear the disciples in their own language and understand what was being said about Jesus while others were not provided that personal understanding and thought them drunk and just babbling.

I've spent many a day at a Seattle market where many languages are routinely heard as people walk by. Very similar, I suppose, th Jerusalem environment on the day of Pentecost.

While God has never given me the ability to understand what they were say in my own language - neither have I ever once thought that the people I heard speaking in Japanese or Chinese were drunk at 9 o'clock in the morning.

People often read into passages what they want to read into them when it really make no sense to do so. Acts 2 is one of those instances where it is often done.

People who want to refute tongues of various kinds often say that all of the instances in the Bible are of people speaking in known languages as the Spirit gave them utterance. There is no scripture that tells us that and, frankly, the idea that the family of Cornelius for instance necessarily started spontaneously speaking in Bulgarian or even Hebrew rather than a language that would sound to many as merely babbling as at Pentecost is preposterous as I see it.

Nor does the OP.

Amen.

Me too - but I'm giving my two cents worth anyway. Probably not a wise thing to do. But then I don't need to answer back to any who may comment on this post and may not.

I agree with you.

Which is why more people here should consider the fact that Pentecostalism and others who speak in tongues and preach about a 2nd experience with the Holy Spirit beyond simple regeneration - are the fastest growing branch of Christianity today. While most of Christianity is in decline - charismatics and those who value tongues for today are multiplying around the world.

There are many areas where evangelism is being done by various groups where the success of these tongue speaking evangelism simply dwarfs all of the other outreach successes combined. :clap::)
Thank you! I've always thought that the hearers in acts 2 were acting as their own interpreters, as opposed to the speakers actually speaking all those languages
 
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The Righterzpen

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The "unknown tongue" is explained in Romans 8:26:

Romans 8:26
Likewise the Spirit also helps our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

And this could also be application to what Paul says about he'd rather speaking 5 words of understanding than 1000 words in an unknown tongue.

Even so, that would be a "hard sell" as an argument for a "private prayer language" because "groaning that can't be uttered" is not a language!
 
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Carl Emerson

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What is partly behind this debate is the demand many make that scripture must clearly record a matter for it to be valid.

This is clearly folly. Jesus said this...

John 16
12“I have many more things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. 13“But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. 14“He will glorify Me, for He will take of Mine and will disclose it to you. 15“All things that the Father has are Mine; therefore I said that He takes of Mine and will disclose it to you.

But we have said - 'Naaa...

If it is not in the book it aint real...

Forget about aligning with what is written, that is not good enough - it must be mentioned in the book.

In doing so we refuse to hear matters that Jesus said the Holy Spirit would later reveal.

We talk about Christ in us but He must be silent.

So we have choked the living ongoing relationship with His truth that He intended us to have.

Secondly we are too quick to condemn a matter as false on the basis of it being abused by some.
 
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Ricky M

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The "unknown tongue" is explained in Romans 8:26:

Romans 8:26
Likewise the Spirit also helps our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself makes intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

And this could also be application to what Paul says about he'd rather speaking 5 words of understanding than 1000 words in an unknown tongue.

Even so, that would be a "hard sell" as an argument for a "private prayer language" because "groaning that can't be uttered" is not a language!
and yet God understands it as if it were!
 
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ACTS 2:8 says, "And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?"

Exactly so.

Every man, regardless of his language group, heard in his own particular language what was being said by the disciples as they praised God and told of His mighty deeds.

Which gives the death knell to the idea that the disciples were speaking the known languages of certain groups only.

Many language groups are named in Acts. But if, let's say, Andrew was speaking French for example - how is it the the German across the square heard him in German unless the emphasis is placed, as it should be, on the hearing in other languages and not on the speaking as is usually done by those as a way of degrading the idea of a special kind of tongue or tongues other than the languages of the world?

Obviously the Holy Spirit has written about these things in a way that allows people to practice tongues in pretty much the way they see things in the scripture.

One thing we know is that we need not (as the Lord promised us) fear that we will receive a counterfeit or something dangerous if we honor what we see in the scriptures.

As I see it - the only way a person could sin in this is either ignoring the directions given to us as to the public practice of tongues or teaching against tongues and those who practice them thereby quenching and grieving the Holy Spirit.

I certainly would rather be someone who was practicing these things a little different than what the Spirit meant for them to be than someone in the later group.

But then - everyone of us will give an account for what we have done and said while in the flesh and I'm OK with that. I just wouldn't want to speak against something the Lord has purposefully given to the church. But that's just me.
 
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