Yet you have no scriptural mandate to do that.
Everytime scripture speaks about a time frame relevant to the fulfillment of prophesy, it is given to be understood by how time relates to men, NOT how time relates to God.
Philippians 2:19
But I trust in the Lord Jesus to send Timothy
shortly unto you, that I also may be of good comfort, when I know your state.
Are you waiting for Timothy's SOON arrival to YOU?
When are you expecting Ol'e Tim to show up?
Tomorrow? Next Week? Next Month, next year?
Certainly "shortly" can't go beyond YOUR lifetime, if in fact this passage is written to and for YOU, right?
Is not this God Breathed scripture written TO and FOR you?
Are you, not the "
you" in this passage to whom the HS has directed and inspired Paul to address this passage to?
If not why not?
Is not the Holy Spirit, through Paul, telling YOU in this passage that He Hopes Jesus will send Timothy to YOU Shortly??
Or, do you say this scripture ONLY relates, and is only applicable, to the 1st century Phillippians, and that Shortly, means, well... Shortly, as they understood it in human terms back then?
Genesis 7:1-4. There, God told Noah:
Enter the ark, you and all your household; for you alone I have seen to be righteous before Me in this time [generation]. You shall take with you of ever clean animal by sevens, a male and his female; and of the animals that are not clean two, a male and his female; also of the birds of the sky, by sevens, male and female, to keep offspring alive on the face of all the earth. For after seven more days, I will send rain on the earth forty days and forty nights; and I will blot our from the face of the land every living thing that I have made.
There are several things in this passage that should be noted. First, this is a prophecy of judgment. Secondly, God declared
when the judgment, i.e., the rain, would start. Thirdly, He stated
how long the rain would last. Fourthly, God spoke this to Noah,
a man trapped in time. God was very specific as to
when the rain would begin and to
how long it would last. God told Noah that after
seven days it would rain for
forty days and nights. Now, our first question regarding this passage is
not how we should interpret what God said, but
how would Noah interpret what God said. Would he understand that God was outside time? That is to say, the references that God made concerning when the judgment would come were to be measured
by how time relates to God? Applying the futurist’s interpretation of
2 Peter 3:8-9to this passage, was God telling Noah that after
7,000 years it would begin to rain and once it started raining, it would continue for
40,000 years? Or should the plain, everyday definitions of the terms be understood? We find our answer in verse’s 10 and 12:
And it came about after the seven days, that the water of the flood came upon the earth¼ And the rain fell upon the earth for forty days and forty nights.
Here, just a few short verses later, we have the fulfillment of that prophecy. This shows us that
God meant exactly what He said to Noah. Seven days
equaled seven days. Forty days and nights
equaled forty days and nights.
In
Ezekiel 12:21-28, it is written:
Then the word of the Lord came to me saying, "Son of man, what is this proverb you people have concerning the land of Israel, saying, ‘The days are long and every vision fails?’ Therefore say to them, ‘Thus says the Lord God, "I will make this proverb cease so that they will no longer use it as a proverb in Israel." But tell them, "The days a draw near as well as the fulfillment of every vision. For there will no longer be any false vision or flattering divination within the house of Israel. For I the Lord shall speak, and whatever word I speak will be performed. It will no longer be delayed, for in you days, O rebellious house, I shall speak the word and perform it," declares the Lord God.’ " Furthermore, the word of the Lord came to me saying, "Son of man, behold, the house of Israel is saying, ‘The vision that he sees is for many years from now, and he prophesies of times far off.’ Therefore say to them, ‘Thus says the Lord God, "None of My words will be delayed any longer. Whatever word I speak will be performed," ’ " declares the Lord God.
In this passage the nation of Israel said that the time statements of God’s word
were irrelevant.
This is exactly what the futurist claims about the time statements concerning the coming of Christ in the first century. They say, just like Israel, "Those passages were not for the original audience but were ‘for many years from now’ and for ‘times far off.’ "
But notice what God thinks about that kind of hermeneutic. God said, "None of My words will be delayed any longer. Whatever word I speak
will be performed." He stated that He would say the word and He would perform it. Again, notice the implication of that statement.
God Himself fulfills His word. When we try and say that the imminent time statements in the New Testament concerning Christ’s coming in the first century are really "for many years from now," i.e., our time, we are saying that
God will not fulfill His word! So the real issue here is
not just differences of interpretation concerning eschatology, but the nature and character of God. If the futurist is correct in his interpretation and application new testament time imminency statements (of which there are
over 100), then God is made out to be a
liar because He will not fulfill His word
when He said He would. Plain and simple. If the futurist is correct, then we might as well be atheists because God Himself cannot even be trusted, and then we are lost. Why? Because, if God is dishonest concerning
when He would fulfill His word, how do we know He was honest concerning the doctrines of Grace? Or anything else for that matter? It’s simple. We don’t. So, again, this is much more than just a difference of interpretation. Our salvation depends on God keeping every aspect of His word.
Including when He was to fulfill it.
Conclusion
1. By letting scripture interpret Scripture, we can see that when God gives a time statement regarding when prophecy would be fulfilled,
unless instructed otherwise, the plain meaning of the terms should be used.
2. By using historical documentation we can see that prophecies were fulfilled exactly
when God said they would be.
3. That God Himself fulfills His word. And if He doesn’t fulfill it when He said He would, then "we are of all men most miserable."
Therefore, we have a historical, and more importantly, a Biblical interpretation of the time statements of prophecy.
Unless otherwise stated, God intended the time statements of prophecy to be interpreted in their
plain, everyday meaning. God is faithful to His word.
He ALWAYS fulfills it WHEN He said He would.
