Once again, I made my points using scripture and not a false dichotomy. Your arguments (along with your arrogance) has been exposed.
You claim that those who fall away were never believers to begin with. That in itself is a logical fallacy. As I pointed out to you that is like you claiming since some chickens lay brown eggs, all chickens lay brown eggs. Your illogical claim is that because
some who fall away were never really believers, then
all who fall away were never really believers. That is not logical, nor is it scriptural. Scripture makes it clear that there are those who apostatize from the faith. Explain how is it possible for an unbeliever to depart from the faith which he/she was never a part of to begin with? Your argument has been exposed as a weak one both logically and scripturally.
No one who is born of God practices sin means those who are born of God DO NOT PRACTICE SIN. Yet you say there are those who are born of God that do practice sin and lose their salvation. John DID NOT say that, but if you want to stick with that fallacy you are free to do so. I will believe John.
Yes, those who are born of God do not practice sin. If they do, they are of the devil (1 Jn 3:8). What do you suppose that means? Is someone who is of the devil still saved? I will believe John who states the opposite of what you believe.
Nobody said anything about a free pass or a license to sin etc..
So if a genuine believer chooses to practice sin, evidencing an unrepentant lifestyle, is he/she still saved? Your fall back excuse is that he/she was never saved in the first place. So given your position, you being a genuine Christian (I assume) can never fall into sin and habitually sin/practice sin because then that would entail that you were never, ever a Christian to being with, correct?
Context is key, yet death may refer to spiritual death or physical death. It all depends on the context, which is not poor hermeneutics and does not amount to eisegesis.
In the passage being discussed the context indicates you are eisegeting the text as I pointed out. Care to wrestle with the text based on my pointing that out to you?
Again, you are adding your own personal commentary to
Romans 8:1. "Who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit" is "descriptive" of those who are "in Christ Jesus." Paul did not say that these believers do not walk according to the Spirit.
The clause in v.1 refers to those "who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit." These are the ones for whom is promised "no condemnation." You have a choice don't you as to whether to walk in the flesh or Spirit? Yes or No? If you choose to walk in the flesh evidencing no repentance, are you still not condemned? Yes or No?
Believers are condemned if they walk according to the Spirit?
You mean according to the flesh. Again, Paul said who do not walk according to the flesh. There is no implication of believers here not walking according to the Spirit and being condemned. So where do you draw the line in the sand and say that you are not walking according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit? Sinless perfection?
Nope as you and I know, no such thing a sinless perfection as we all sin per 1 Jn 1:8,10. However there is a marked difference between
occasional sin which all believers still commit and the
practice of sin which not all believers commit. Notice that 1 Jn 1:7 states that
IF we are
walking in the light, the blood of Jesus cleanses our sin. The word "if" indicates a condition (walking in the light) that must be met in order for the cleansing blood of Jesus to be efficacious. "If" indicates possibility, maybe even probability, but never certainty. It is therefore possible that a genuine believer can choose to walk in darkness by practicing sin and not walking in the light. If that is the case then the cleansing blood of Jesus is not assured of since the believer lives an unrepentant lifestyle. Thus John and Paul are in perfect agreement as not walking in the light and not living according to the Spirit for the believer results in spiritual death.
It's a warning to unbelievers/those who walk according to the flesh. *Stop ignoring
Romans 8:8-11.
Nope. Only believers have the CHOICE to walk according to the flesh OR according to the Spirit. You have ignored the little word "IF." Unbelievers have no such choice as being unregenerated they cannot help but walk according to the flesh. That being the case, Paul would have used the word "since" if he were addressing unbelievers since unbelievers can only choose to live according to the flesh. Moreover, Rom 8:13 is a first class condition sentence which for the sake of argument assumes that the protasis is true and consequently the apodosis is also true. I suggest you look it up and inform yourself accordingly.
Just because this letter is addressed to "little children" does not mean that everyone being addressed in the letter is a child of God. "The one practicing sin is of the devil" is not a child of God! Don't be so naive. Paul makes a
clear contrast between children of God and children of the devil in
1 John 3:7-10.
Quite the contrary. Any author of a book, letter, etc. can specify who his specific audience is. Paul specified that his audience is "little children" which can only mean true believers. The child of God who practices sin is of the devil. You are free to believe otherwise.
Yes, I read what you wrote and you did no such thing. Get over yourself.
Same applies to you.
did not totally ignore what you said in
James 5:13,14 which does not change a thing. *I find it interesting that you tried to discredit the word "among" in
James 5:19,20 by saying that "among" need not be in the text and is not in the text in some translations, yet later you back peddle and point out that the word "among" is in
James 5:13,14 as if that changes everything in regards to
James 5:19,20.
Nope. I first showed you that "among" is not universally included in all translations which automatically weakens your argument. Then I proceeded to totally discredit your argument when pointing out to you that "among" in the preceding verses plainly refers to believers. You however claim that the meaning of "among" somehow changes from believers to unbelievers from v. 13-14 to v. 19-20. How exactly does that work? You play fast and loose with "among" in order to cling to your doctrine.
Not necessarily and even if vs. 19 was referring to believers, the death in that case would be physical, not spiritual, as I already throughly explained in posts #26 and #81.
Nope. Everyone physically dies whether or not they wander from the truth. The verse therefore warns against death of the soul which is spiritual death from which a believer can be saved from if he/she turns back to the truth.
You are the master of IRONY.
Funny...it takes one to know one.