Logically Irrefutable: Time is Caused by Motion

Ohj1n37

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Time is not caused by motion as explained via Quantum Mechanics.
Starting off with the Heisenberg uncertainty principle;

ΔxΔp ≥ h/2

Δx and Δp are the uncertainties in measuring position and momentum and h is Planck’s constant.
A variant of Heisenberg uncertainty principle is the energy-time relationship.

ΔEΔt ≥ h/2

Whereas position and momentum are defined by mathematical operators, there is no mathematical operator for time in Quantum Mechanics and Δt is therefore not an uncertainty in the time measurement.
Instead Δt is the characteristic time scale for a quantum state to change.

Alright so, I was unable to follow the math as stated previously I have a disability concerning that. I also have no where near the training or education to hold a conversation in that area. If possible could you explain what you are talking about in a different way? Other than that I would recommend looking at the following and see if it effects your response,

Another thing that is perceived incorrectly is what my dad has dubbed the conundrum of math (currently the only person I can talk to that really understands me is my dad). The conundrum of math is an illusion that math creates and here is an example. I was talking to a person a lot smarter than me and the person states, "matter can not move unless it has velocity." I told him he was incorrect, "the matter has velocity because it is moving." For those of you reading take awhile to think about that, it is both hard, but simple to understand, an illusion of sorts.

Here's a crude outline:

Force (Other Movement) -> Movement -> Velocity, Time, Etc.

The same can be said about time because when something is moving it's movement can be compared allowing for both the perception and measurement of time. Remember my definition of time is motion compared to a standard of motion or comparative motion.


You still haven't defined what time is or demonstrated anything other than correlation between time and movement.

Time is a physical property that describes comparative motion.

Please let me know what your thoughts are on the following question,

Time can only be measured by comparing something's motion to a standard of motion. This means that the only way we can know time within reality, the real world, the physical world, is by comparing motion. This comparison is not just done by measuring, but by our own brains and how we perceive as we too are matter moving through space. Our own perception is like a clock of sorts. And the question is, if time only exists within reality as motion compared to a standard of motion, including our own perception, is that what time really is?

Read the above and think, is the way something exists in reality the way something truly exists? Let me know if that doesn't answer your question and why if it doesn't.
 
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Bungle_Bear

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Read the above and think, is the way something exists in reality the way something truly exists? Let me know if that doesn't answer your question and why if it doesn't.
All the passage says is that time can only be measured by comparing motion between 2 systems. But you have not defined what you are measuring, ie what is time. You can measure *time* but what, exactly, is *time*?

Once you have defined what time is, then we can look at causation. But until you know what time is, how can you say it is caused by motion?
 
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fwGod

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Time is measured by the movement of the planets in a solar system within it's galaxy. Our sun rotates and our earth rotates and makes it's orbit. And the sundial which measures the passage of time doesn't move.

Motion is a measurement of time. Motion is a by-product of time. But the passage of time can be motionless. So motion and motionlessness and time can each exist together.
 
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FrumiousBandersnatch

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One of the misconceptions that I see people having is thinking things they personally can't see moving is not motion and this is not true. For instance hot and cold we generally can't see moving, but it is just the excitation of atomic particles. Another example is given in the post above, radioactive decay. Radioactive decay to my understanding (may be wrong) is caused by the weak force and is an atom losing a proton or neutron, this again can be considered motion.
With regard to radioactive decay, I think the time element intended was not the decay process itself, but the stochastic interval prior to decay; i.e. an atomic decay happens after an unpredictable interval that does not involve observable movement. So you can time an interval by the amount some isotope has decayed - e.g. radiocarbon dating.

Time defined as comparative motion leads me to my next point. Relativity tells us time is not always constant just as someone corrected another person in one of the previous posts. This works seamlessly with time defined as comparative motion, after all comparative just means relative. If anyone would like me to I can explain how time dilation works without the need of spacetime and why it is seamless with time defined as comparative motion.
This seems to confuse observed time with time in the abstract. It is trivially true that the elapsed time between two events for any observer depends on her motion relative to those events, and that observers in relative motion will not agree on the elapsed time between the same two events, but they will measure that interval in their respective frames with devices that may or may not involve motion, i.e. clocks, including radioactive isotopes.
 
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sjastro

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Alright so, I was unable to follow the math as stated previously I have a disability concerning that. I also have no where near the training or education to hold a conversation in that area. If possible could you explain what you are talking about in a different way? Other than that I would recommend looking at the following and see if it effects your response,
Without going into detail in the maths behind QM (Quantum Mechanics), when a QM state is measured for properties such as position (x), momentum (p) or energy (E), there is a statistical uncertainty Δx, Δp, ΔE in the measurement.
Time is not considered to be a measurement but an intrinsic property in the evolution of the QM state.

To understand what ΔEΔt ≥ h/4 means a fluorescent rock is a good example.
When incident photons of a specific energy E are absorbed by the rock it goes from an unexcited ground state to an excited state.
On returning to the ground state it undergoes fluorescence.
The time evolution of the ground state to the excited state (or vice versa) is defined as Δt.
There is however a statistical uncertainty in the energy of the incident photons defined as ΔE.
This impacts on the time evolution according to the equation ΔEΔt ≥ h/4.
When the energy uncertainty is small the time evolution is large; conversely if the energy uncertainty is large the time evolution is small.

In our universe we can use motion as measurement of an intrinsic property known as time but time is not caused by motion.
 
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Ohj1n37

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All the passage says is that time can only be measured by comparing motion between 2 systems. But you have not defined what you are measuring, ie what is time. You can measure *time* but what, exactly, is *time*?

Once you have defined what time is, then we can look at causation. But until you know what time is, how can you say it is caused by motion?

Hi, thank you for the constructive feedback. I apologize for not wording it as clearly as I should. I believe time does not just describe comparative motion, but is actually comparative motion, motion compared to a standard of motion or some other motion, and that is why motion is required for time.


Time is measured by the movement of the planets in a solar system within it's galaxy. Our sun rotates and our earth rotates and makes it's orbit. And the sundial which measures the passage of time doesn't move.

What you have described is like workings of a traditional modern clock. Instead of the clock being composed of gears the shadow that is cast by the sun is the sundial's "gears". This means the the sundial is the standard of motion that can then be compared with other motion.

Motion is a measurement of time. Motion is a by-product of time.

This is how time is traditionally perceived and is what I am trying to get at as being incorrect. What I have pointed out in my original post is that time requires motion to be measured or perceived. All of our empirical science and understanding is based upon cause and effect. If time requires motion to be both measured or perceived this would suggest that motion is the cause of time. Since effect can not proceed cause, time is a result of motion not the other way around.

But the passage of time can be motionless. So motion and motionlessness and time can each exist together.

I am about to be sarcastic to make a point. I am not trying to be rude at all I just want to get this point across. What is this passage of time you speak of? Can it be measured, observed, quantified in a way I have not mentioned in my previous posts including the first? The passage of time you speak of is an illusion, a human construct, something that only, to my understanding, exists within our minds.


With regard to radioactive decay, I think the time element intended was not the decay process itself, but the stochastic interval prior to decay; i.e. an atomic decay happens after an unpredictable interval that does not involve observable movement.

Thank you for the information. I apologize for misunderstanding. Does the interval you speak of happen with any kind of movement, even movement that is not observable? If it happens with no movement what creates the interval or is that unknown? Also how is the timing done with the decay of another isotope? With my limited knowledge it appears that we are unable to detect the movement of the interval, but can use the isotope as a standard of motion to compare to the interval. Please if you will explain more. Thank you very much.

This seems to confuse observed time with time in the abstract. It is trivially true that the elapsed time between two events for any observer depends on her motion relative to those events, and that observers in relative motion will not agree on the elapsed time between the same two events, but they will measure that interval in their respective frames with devices that may or may not involve motion, i.e. clocks, including radioactive isotopes.

I am not convinced that radioactive isotopes do not involve movement and now I will go off on a small tangent and explain what I believe causes time dilation.

The only things required for time dilation are relative motion and that the faster something moves the more energy it requires to further increase that thing's movement. These are both established fact.

Right now you are not stationary even if you are not moving. You are moving however fast the Earth is moving. This means you are currently affected by time dilation, but since everyone on Earth is also moving at least the speed of the Earth it really doesn't matter for everyday life.

What I have explained above is relative motion. If something is moving a speed, everything apart of or on that thing is also moving at that speed, simple. Another interesting thing is that the faster something moves the more energy it requires to move even faster. This is not noticeable until reaching very fast speeds.

Combining relative motion with the faster something moves the more energy something requires to move faster, results in the things that are a part of something or on something requiring even energy to move faster. This is because the thing that they are on or a part of's movement is also their movement. Here is the important part, the thing that is on or a part of something only moves with a certain amount of energy, but the energy required to move has increased. This leaves one option, for the things that is on or a part of something to slow down when the thing they are on or a part of moves faster.


To understand what ΔEΔt ≥ h/4 means a fluorescent rock is a good example.
When incident photons of a specific energy E are absorbed by the rock it goes from an unexcited ground state to an excited state.
On returning to the ground state it undergoes fluorescence.
The time evolution of the ground state to the excited state (or vice versa) is defined as Δt.

First I want to thank you for taking the time to explain this to me. Now I will try my best to form my interpretation of what you have described.

Light hits a fluorescent rock. The photons of the light interact with said rock. Due to the rock being fluorescent is excites what the rock is made out of causing the rock to emit light. The excitation of the fluorescent rock's structure is movement and its emission of light is also movement. The rock emits light until there is both no longer light to be absorbed and its structure is no longer excited or moving.

There is however a statistical uncertainty in the energy of the incident photons defined as ΔE.
This impacts on the time evolution according to the equation ΔEΔt ≥ h/4.
When the energy uncertainty is small the time evolution is large; conversely if the energy uncertainty is large the time evolution is small.

Due to our inability or the imperfection of math to know exactly how much movement was imparted by the photons to the fluorescent rock we have created a value that takes this into account.

When there is more motion involved such as the photons hitting the florescent rock the emission of light from the florescent rock can only happen so fast. This means the rock stays excited longer leaving more room for statistical error. On the flip side if less light hits the rock, meaning less energy, the motion of the excitation is not as much and will settle down faster. This leaves less room for statistical error.

If you are willing please let me know how accurate this interpretation is, it's probably horrible, but I find what you are saying very interesting and wish to continue the conversation.

In our universe we can use motion as measurement of an intrinsic property known as time but time is not caused by motion.

If my interpretation is anywhere near correct I believe I have been able to describe what you have said, but replacing the traditional perception of time with how I define time, comparative motion. If I have described it accurately I do not understand how it is at odds with time caused by motion.

Thank you all for your time.
 
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SelfSim

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All of our empirical science and understanding is based upon cause and effect.
...
Since effect can not proceed cause, time is a result of motion not the other way around.
I see this as a major flaw in your argument.

If event A happens and it is consistently followed by event B, this is frequently taken to be event A causing event B. However, where event X causes both A and B, then A and B are also connected via event X.
Therefore, it's not a clear-cut physical notion that A causes B. There are many other possibilities, you can have X cause both A and B, but A always comes first. You can have the occurrence of B necessitating that A must have come before, etc.
And you can have situations like, let's say I hold a gun to your head and I decide not to pull the trigger. Have I 'caused' you to not die? Is the rest of your life an effect of my decision not to shoot you? Can I cause an outcome via an action I didn't even take? One person might say yes, another no. What test could decide who was right?

The concept that a cause is fundamentally different from an effect, pretty much doesn't exist in physics. It's not in any equation, it's not used in any formal sense.

Ohj1n37 said:
I am about to be sarcastic to make a point. I am not trying to be rude at all I just want to get this point across. What is this passage of time you speak of? Can it be measured, observed, quantified in a way I have not mentioned in my previous posts including the first? The passage of time you speak of is an illusion, a human construct, something that only, to my understanding, exists within our minds.
There is nothing 'rude' in any of the underlined part of that. In fact, time as a concept is heavily evidenced as relying solely upon our minds .. as does the concept of what 'exists'.
 
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sjastro

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First I want to thank you for taking the time to explain this to me. Now I will try my best to form my interpretation of what you have described.
You’re welcome.

Light hits a fluorescent rock. The photons of the light interact with said rock. Due to the rock being fluorescent is excites what the rock is made out of causing the rock to emit light. The excitation of the fluorescent rock's structure is movement and its emission of light is also movement. The rock emits light until there is both no longer light to be absorbed and its structure is no longer excited or moving.

It’s the electrons in the atoms which make up the rock that end up in higher energy levels when the atoms are excited.
Photons (fluorescent light) are emitted when the electrons return to their initial state.
The rock itself doesn’t undergo any movement as it does not behave at a quantum mechanical scale where particles can be recoiled or moved by scattering photons.
The Compton wavelength λ = h/mc is the theoretical size an object would need to be in order to be recoiled by photons.
For a rock of mass 1g, λ = 2.2 x 10⁻²⁸ metres.
This is many magnitudes smaller than an electron and impossible to recoil.

Due to our inability or the imperfection of math to know exactly how much movement was imparted by the photons to the fluorescent rock we have created a value that takes this into account.


When there is more motion involved such as the photons hitting the florescent rock the emission of light from the florescent rock can only happen so fast. This means the rock stays excited longer leaving more room for statistical error. On the flip side if less light hits the rock, meaning less energy, the motion of the excitation is not as much and will settle down faster. This leaves less room for statistical error.

Let’s consider the case of the photons emitted when electrons go back to their ground state. In this case Δt is the time taken to go from the excited state to initial state.
Like the incident photons, the energy of the emitted photons is subject to statistical uncertainty.
The energy of the emitted photons is given by the formula dE = hv where v is the frequency.
Depending on Δt and v we can measure the photon energy dE over a number of cycles. If Δt is large dE is measured over a larger number of cycles, the average of dE (<dE>) comes closer to the true value resulting in a small ΔE value.

On the other hand if Δt is small, only a small number of cycles can be averaged in which case <dE> deviates further from the true value and ΔE is large.

For similar reasons the spectrum of the fluorescent light would reveal the emission lines are naturally broadened.
slide_15.jpg


If you are willing please let me know how accurate this interpretation is, it's probably horrible, but I find what you are saying very interesting and wish to continue the conversation.

I'm afraid the answer is the same as before, time is not caused by motion.
 
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fwGod

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What you have described is like workings of a traditional modern clock. Instead of the clock being composed of gears the shadow that is cast by the sun is the sundial's "gears". This means the the sundial is the standard of motion that can then be compared with other motion.
In contrast I can use the light within anyone's home. At night the light is on. It casts a shadow on all objects in a room. There is no rotation for the shadows to move. There are no gears working to indicate the passage of time.
We would have to observe something else in motion that is indicating the passage of time.

Again. Motion and motionless and time are each existing together.
 
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FrumiousBandersnatch

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Thank you for the information. I apologize for misunderstanding.
No problem.

Does the interval you speak of happen with any kind of movement, even movement that is not observable? If it happens with no movement what creates the interval or is that unknown?
Atoms and their constituents oscillate and vibrate, but radioactive decay is a quantum event, and by the standard interpretation, is truly random (actually stochastic) and so is, in principle, unpredictable. Quantum events are, from our viewpoint, inherently stochastic, where the probability of observing a particular outcome for any measurement is given by the Schrodinger probability density wave function - however, this doesn't actually describe the probabilities of the system (e.g. nucleus) being in particular states; until measured (interacted with), quantum systems are actually in a superposition of all possible states.

In short, it's not known what causes radioactive decay, but it's not movement in a classical sense; you might be tempted to describe the evolution of the wavefunction as quantum 'movement', but as above, it doesn't describe the state of the system prior to observation.

Different QM interpretations look at the issues in different ways, but it's not clear that movement is involved in triggering radioactive decay in any interpretation. The point is that classical intuitions and common-sense concepts are not always applicable at quantum scales - a recent model suggests that time is fundamental and space is emergent from the network of interactions between events with similar histories... See Lee Smolin's papers on Views and Energetic Causal Sets.

... how is the timing done with the decay of another isotope? With my limited knowledge it appears that we are unable to detect the movement of the interval, but can use the isotope as a standard of motion to compare to the interval. Please if you will explain more. Thank you very much.
I don't quite understand what you're asking - an isotope is not a standard of motion. Different isotopes have different, but consistent, half-lives, i.e. they each have a set time for (on average) half the number of atoms in any sample to decay.

The only things required for time dilation are relative motion and that the faster something moves the more energy it requires to further increase that thing's movement. These are both established fact.
It only takes relative motion for velocity (special relativistic) time dilation.

Right now you are not stationary even if you are not moving. You are moving however fast the Earth is moving. This means you are currently affected by time dilation, but since everyone on Earth is also moving at least the speed of the Earth it really doesn't matter for everyday life.
This is meaningless without referents in relative motion. You are stationary, i.e. not moving, in your reference (proper or comoving) frame. You are moving, by definition, relative to other frames. Time dilation occurs in frames observed moving relative to you, and observers in other frames will see your frame time dilated relative to theirs. Observed time dilation between observers in relative motion is symmetric (each will see the other's clock run slow by the same amount) unless one observer is accelerating.

Combining relative motion with the faster something moves the more energy something requires to move faster, results in the things that are a part of something or on something requiring even energy to move faster. This is because the thing that they are on or a part of's movement is also their movement. Here is the important part, the thing that is on or a part of something only moves with a certain amount of energy, but the energy required to move has increased. This leaves one option, for the things that is on or a part of something to slow down when the thing they are on or a part of moves faster.
This sounds like a confused description of special relativity - Lorentz invariance. But when you use terms like 'slow down' that can refer to either velocity or time in this context, it's hard to make sense of it.
 
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ViaCrucis

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Your thesis logically refuted: My wife says I sat in front of the TV last night for three hours and didn't move.

I did the same thing, though I think I experienced some time dilation. It only felt like three hours, but the clock in the kitchen said more time than that had passed.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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Kylie

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Imagine a universe where there is no movement at all. Time must not exist. Can anything move in this universe? No, since there is no time, and movement requires time. Thus, if everything stops moving, time stops, and nothing can start it up again. Do you believe this?
 
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Ohj1n37

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First I want to thank everyone who has given constructive feedback. I am not well versed in quantum mechanics in anyway and am learning a lot in this respect. Now I will try to give my replies.

It’s the electrons in the atoms which make up the rock that end up in higher energy levels when the atoms are excited.
Photons (fluorescent light) are emitted when the electrons return to their initial state.
The rock itself doesn’t undergo any movement as it does not behave at a quantum mechanical scale where particles can be recoiled or moved by scattering photons.
The Compton wavelength λ = h/mc is the theoretical size an object would need to be in order to be recoiled by photons.
For a rock of mass 1g, λ = 2.2 x 10⁻²⁸ metres.
This is many magnitudes smaller than an electron and impossible to recoil.

I am sorry for being unclear, when I refer to movement I refer to movement at any scale. The rock is in a way moving as you have said, the electrons of the atoms that the rock is made of become excited indicating that they move. It is also to my understanding energy can be described as a movement, but can appear different depending on the scale in which it is interacting.

Like the incident photons, the energy of the emitted photons is subject to statistical uncertainty.
The energy of the emitted photons is given by the formula dE = hv where v is the frequency.
Depending on Δt and v we can measure the photon energy dE over a number of cycles. If Δt is large dE is measured over a larger number of cycles, the average of dE (<dE>) comes closer to the true value resulting in a small ΔE value.

On the other hand if Δt is small, only a small number of cycles can be averaged in which case <dE> deviates further from the true value and ΔE is large.

Thank you for explaining again. I hope its okay I had to modify what you said to look like the below, so I could get it through my head and make the point. I left it there for people who might have trouble understanding math like me.

You said (math values exchanged for descriptions),

"If the time value is large, emitted photons is measured over a larger number of cycles, the average of emitted photons comes closer to the true value resulting in a small statistic uncertainty value.

On the other hand if the time value is small, only a small number of cycles can be averaged in which case the average emitted photons deviates further from the true value and there is a large statistical uncertainty."

I don't mean to make this sound rude, but of course if you get a larger sample size the statistical uncertainty will by less. This is like surveying people with polls, the larger the sample size the more accuracy the survey should be.

The best way I can explain my point of view is that I believe math to be a tool and an interpretation of reality, not reality itself. To truly understand what you are describing you must look at how it works within the context of gathering the variables in reality.

For instance the time variable increasing means that you are just gathering more data, similar to how if you were doing a poll, the time variable is like the amount of people being surveyed. Both the time variable and the number of people in the poll refer to the amount of data collected and therefore positively affect the statistical uncertainty as they increase. Just like the energy emitted by the fluorescent rock we have no idea what peoples opinions are, so it appears to be random to us.

To further compound my point and go off on a small tangent, most if not all math formulas involving motion have circular definitions. When one realizes that motion is a fundamental it breaks all circular definitions of math formulas involving motion, as motion is the root of all said definitions.

Let me know what you think and if I have given a proper response.


In contrast I can use the light within anyone's home. At night the light is on. It casts a shadow on all objects in a room. There is no rotation for the shadows to move. There are no gears working to indicate the passage of time.
We would have to observe something else in motion that is indicating the passage of time.

Again. Motion and motionless and time are each existing together.

I am not sure what you are getting at, but something interesting to think of is that you too are in a way a clock. The way in which your body perceives and functions is matter moving through space. This means that you are a standard of motion for comparing other motion.

Another point is that everything is always moving. To my understanding there is nothing that is never truly still. Everything moves at some scale whether it be detectable or not.

So we do not have to perceive motion to indicate the passage of time. Our body is alive and moving within us. You are made of countless cells, countless atoms, and countless things smaller than that, all of which are moving.


Quantum events are, from our viewpoint, inherently stochastic, where the probability of observing a particular outcome for any measurement is given by the Schrodinger probability density wave function - however, this doesn't actually describe the probabilities of the system (e.g. nucleus) being in particular states; until measured (interacted with), quantum systems are actually in a superposition of all possible states.

In short, it's not known what causes radioactive decay, but it's not movement in a classical sense; you might be tempted to describe the evolution of the wavefunction as quantum 'movement', but as above, it doesn't describe the state of the system prior to observation.

This is something that is new to me. Thank you for the information. If I were to guess though it appears that we have not yet the capability to detect motion on that scale.

I don't quite understand what you're asking - an isotope is not a standard of motion. Different isotopes have different, but consistent, half-lives, i.e. they each have a set time for (on average) half the number of atoms in any sample to decay.

I will go off on a small tangent explaining my background, so that you know where I am coming from and then I will share my explanation.

I do not have formal training in science beyond a very limited high school experience. I struggled throughout my school experience. When my parents asked for help that is given to those with problems like mine the school system told my parents that I was doing good enough and did not need help.

I was able to make it through school without reading a single book (I am very bad at reading) with a respectable GPA. Science was my best subject and came effortless to the point where I could lay my head down in class and make good grades (the medicine I was taking at the time made me very tired). On the other hand math was not my strong suit.

I want to be clear that I am not saying that I do not try or that I am smart, I try hard and I am not smart. It is just that I face my trials in different ways than most others. I am telling you this to make a point and to explain the "language barrier" that I have with others. I have view points that are very different because I have not learned these things in the traditional sense.

If you ever played dungeons and dragons, I haven't, but I have family who have, I would be more like a sorcerer than a wizard. I don't know why, but somethings I understand without any effort and other things are impossible for me to grasp. I do some reading on the internet now, but it is very limited.

Now to my point the isotope can be a used as a standard of motion. As you have said different isotopes have consistent half lives. This is like a pocket watch for example. A pocket watch makes a good standard of motion because the way in which its gears move are consistent and this allows for an accurate comparison of motion. Imagine if the isotope's half life was not consistent, it would not be good for comparing motion. The same could be said about a pocket watch that has gears that do not work correctly, it would no longer be good for comparing motion.

It only takes relative motion for velocity (special relativistic) time dilation.

I am not sure what you mean here. Funny story though, I thought I figured out relative motion myself and was calling it absolution of movement (explanation is further down). To my understanding time dilation requires both relative motion and whatever it is called when movement requires more energy the faster something moves. Please though if you are willing I would like to know what you mean.

This is meaningless without referents in relative motion. You are stationary, i.e. not moving, in your reference (proper or comoving) frame. You are moving, by definition, relative to other frames.

When I originally thought I had discovered relative motion I called it the absolution of movement. I called relative motion this because movement is an absolute (got confused with the word absolution, but it worked because I was justifying what motion truly is). I can prove this with a simple question. If the Earth is moving and you are on the Earth are you also moving with the Earth? I see relative motion as layers on top of each other. If I jump in a car and the car goes thirty five miles an hour I have just added another layer, the "car layer". This means I am going the Earth's speed and the car's speed added together.

Time dilation occurs in frames observed moving relative to you, and observers in other frames will see your frame time dilated relative to theirs. Observed time dilation between observers in relative motion is symmetric (each will see the other's clock run slow by the same amount) unless one observer is accelerating.

I am sorry for the misunderstanding. This is what I meant when I said everyone on Earth is time dilated because we are all moving the Earth's speed. Since we are all moving the same speed and are affected by the same time dilation and so it is unnoticeable and is what we refer to as "normal".

This sounds like a confused description of special relativity - Lorentz invariance. But when you use terms like 'slow down' that can refer to either velocity or time in this context, it's hard to make sense of it.

I have heard of the Lorentz invariance, but am unsure how to understand it. If you are willing would you please explain it to me. Perhaps when I understand it better I could give you a better explanation of what I am trying to describe.

Thank you for all your input.


Imagine a universe where there is no movement at all. Time must not exist.

Hi, thank you for your post. I do not think time exists in the traditional sense even when things are moving. To my understanding time is actually an emergent property or is derived from matter moving through space. So when you say time must not exist it didn't really exist in the first place with the traditional definition.

If we were to view the universe in your example, a universe with no motion, nothing would ever change because there would be no movement to cause said change. Would you say that would make that universe timeless, something that never changes?

No, since there is no time, and movement requires time.

Movement requiring time is what is traditionally thought and is what I believe to be an illusion. In my first post I showed that to measure time one must compare motion to other motion, most commonly a standard of motion, matter of fact this is the only way in which time can be measured. I have learned recently though there are quantum events we do not totally understand and may not move, but that is besides the point as it is unknown.

Now since measuring time as motion compared to a standard of motion or other motion is the only way time can be known in reality this must be the way in which time exists. This also means for time to exist it requires motion which is the opposite of what you have said.

Thus, if everything stops moving, time stops, and nothing can start it up again. Do you believe this?

If everything somehow had its motion removed and motion could no longer be started, everything to a human not in that same universe would perceive that universe as if time had stopped. Since nothing would be moving anymore nothing would ever change and therefore everything would be what we call timeless.

In way yes I agree with this, but I am unsure if we are on the same page. You may be getting yourself stuck in a loop due the traditional interdependence of time and movement. When you realize motion allows for the comparison of motion (time) the interdependence disappears and the "infinite loop" is no longer a problem. This is what happened to me when I was figuring it out.
 
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SelfSim

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Now since measuring time as motion compared to a standard of motion or other motion is the only way time can be known in reality this must be the way in which time exists. This also means for time to exist it requires motion which is the opposite of what you have said.
Have you ever considered that time is what a human observer brings into all of our observations of the universe?
The human brain has the capacity of memory. This allows us to compare two events and notice any changes between them.
Time is a concept. Somehow our minds then forget that such concepts were created as a fundamental part of how our minds function.
The way we then take such a concept and make it 'exist in reality' is then also a fundamental function of our minds .. which, when one thinks about it, must also apply for everything we regard as 'reality' (or existing).

Try this on .. it works!
 
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FrumiousBandersnatch

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Now to my point the isotope can be a used as a standard of motion. As you have said different isotopes have consistent half lives. This is like a pocket watch for example. A pocket watch makes a good standard of motion because the way in which its gears move are consistent and this allows for an accurate comparison of motion. Imagine if the isotope's half life was not consistent, it would not be good for comparing motion. The same could be said about a pocket watch that has gears that do not work correctly, it would no longer be good for comparing motion.
This sounds like begging the question. An isotope can be used as a clock, i.e. for measuring elapsed time. Watches and clocks are standards of time. Standards of time can be used to measure the elapsed time of motion, for example, to calculate the velocity of something in motion.

It only takes relative motion for velocity (special relativistic) time dilation.
I am not sure what you mean here. Funny story though, I thought I figured out relative motion myself and was calling it absolution of movement (explanation is further down). To my understanding time dilation requires both relative motion and whatever it is called when movement requires more energy the faster something moves. Please though if you are willing I would like to know what you mean.
I mean that all it takes to observe time dilation is relative motion. If you observe someone with a clock who is moving relative to you, you will see their clock run slow compared to your own clock. Likewise, they will see your clock run slow relative to theirs. This is time dilation. Neither of you need to expend any energy for this to happen.

I'm not quite sure what you mean by "movement requires more energy the faster something moves". Movement is relative, so how fast you're moving is relative to whatever you're comparing with. If you mean acceleration, you can continue the same acceleration, say 1g, indefinitely using the same amount of energy per unit of your time - but the increase in your velocity relative to some arbitrary reference frame will reduce so that you never reach the speed of light relative to that (or any other) frame. From the viewpoint of the reference frame, your increase in velocity takes ever more energy. The apparent contradiction is due to the distortion of spacetime relative to that frame at relativistic speeds.

When I originally thought I had discovered relative motion I called it the absolution of movement. I called relative motion this because movement is an absolute (got confused with the word absolution, but it worked because I was justifying what motion truly is). I can prove this with a simple question. If the Earth is moving and you are on the Earth are you also moving with the Earth? I see relative motion as layers on top of each other. If I jump in a car and the car goes thirty five miles an hour I have just added another layer, the "car layer". This means I am going the Earth's speed and the car's speed added together.
Movement is not an absolute, it is always relative to something else. In your example you are moving at the Earth's speed + the car's speed relative to whatever reference you're measuring the Earth's speed by (the sun?). In fact, your speed relative to that reference will be slightly less than the sum of the Earth's speed and the car's speed, because you can never travel faster than light relative to that reference. At everyday speeds, this isn't noticeable, but near the speed of light it is.

Time dilation occurs in frames observed moving relative to you, and observers in other frames will see your frame time dilated relative to theirs. Observed time dilation between observers in relative motion is symmetric (each will see the other's clock run slow by the same amount) unless one observer is accelerating.
I am sorry for the misunderstanding. This is what I meant when I said everyone on Earth is time dilated because we are all moving the Earth's speed. Since we are all moving the same speed and are affected by the same time dilation and so it is unnoticeable and is what we refer to as "normal".
We're not time dilated, except from the point of view of some observer moving relative to us, i.e. some observer in whatever frame you're using to measure Earth's speed. Our time is always normal to us (it's called proper time).

I have heard of the Lorentz invariance, but am unsure how to understand it. If you are willing would you please explain it to me.
Lorentz invariance basically means that the laws of physics look the same in all inertial frames, i.e. for all uniform motion. There is a formula you can use, called a Lorentz transformation, to calculate what things look like from another frame's point of view. For example, if you know your velocity relative to some other object, and you measure its length, you can apply a Lorentz transformation to calculate its proper length, i.e. the length someone on that object would measure it as.
 
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sjastro

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First I want to thank everyone who has given constructive feedback. I am not well versed in quantum mechanics in anyway and am learning a lot in this respect. Now I will try to give my replies.



I am sorry for being unclear, when I refer to movement I refer to movement at any scale. The rock is in a way moving as you have said, the electrons of the atoms that the rock is made of become excited indicating that they move. It is also to my understanding energy can be described as a movement, but can appear different depending on the scale in which it is interacting.



Thank you for explaining again. I hope its okay I had to modify what you said to look like the below, so I could get it through my head and make the point. I left it there for people who might have trouble understanding math like me.

You said (math values exchanged for descriptions),

"If the time value is large, emitted photons is measured over a larger number of cycles, the average of emitted photons comes closer to the true value resulting in a small statistic uncertainty value.

On the other hand if the time value is small, only a small number of cycles can be averaged in which case the average emitted photons deviates further from the true value and there is a large statistical uncertainty."

I don't mean to make this sound rude, but of course if you get a larger sample size the statistical uncertainty will by less. This is like surveying people with polls, the larger the sample size the more accuracy the survey should be.

The best way I can explain my point of view is that I believe math to be a tool and an interpretation of reality, not reality itself. To truly understand what you are describing you must look at how it works within the context of gathering the variables in reality.

For instance the time variable increasing means that you are just gathering more data, similar to how if you were doing a poll, the time variable is like the amount of people being surveyed. Both the time variable and the number of people in the poll refer to the amount of data collected and therefore positively affect the statistical uncertainty as they increase. Just like the energy emitted by the fluorescent rock we have no idea what peoples opinions are, so it appears to be random to us.

To further compound my point and go off on a small tangent, most if not all math formulas involving motion have circular definitions. When one realizes that motion is a fundamental it breaks all circular definitions of math formulas involving motion, as motion is the root of all said definitions.

Let me know what you think and if I have given a proper response.

The flaw with your argument is you are assuming uncertainty terms such as ΔE purely relate to statistical noise such as sampling of a population.
Noise doesn't have to be statistical, it can include an external noise due to a physical cause which sampling alone will not reduce.
There is a physical interpretation to ΔE as I explained with the example of the broadening of spectral lines.
Variations in a photon's energy ΔE are due to variations in the photon's frequency Δv which in turn affects the evolution time of the state Δt.
The absorption or emission lines cannot be sharp else E is 100% defined making ΔE = 0 and Δt is undefined.
Conversely Δt can never be zero as ΔE is no longer defined.
The higher the frequency which is cycles per second, the greater number of cycles that can be measured for any given time interval Δt.
Astronomers take spectra of very distant galaxies.
The width of the spectral lines which is a measurement of ΔE is independent of the exposure time which is not Δt.
Astronomers use long exposure times to obtain a high S/N ratio which relates to photon statistics and is a different subject.
 
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Ohj1n37

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Time is a concept. Somehow our minds then forget that such concepts were created as a fundamental part of how our minds function.

Hi, thank you for your input. Time is more than a concept. Time is something that is objective and can be observed. This is why in my original post I outlined the only way time can be observed. I believe the way in which something is observed is the way in which it exists.

The way we then take such a concept and make it 'exist in reality' is then also a fundamental function of our minds .. which, when one thinks about it, must also apply for everything we regard as 'reality' (or existing).

I do not believe we will anything into reality. I might be misunderstanding what you are saying.


This sounds like begging the question. An isotope can be used as a clock, i.e. for measuring elapsed time. Watches and clocks are standards of time. Standards of time can be used to measure the elapsed time of motion, for example, to calculate the velocity of something in motion.

To my understand everything is either space, matter, or motion. I use this as the foundation of my ideas. A watch is matter and its gears have motion. The watch's motion is consistent allowing for a good standard of motion. We as humans create standards including standards of motion. The isotope is matter, its process of decay is motion. The isotope's motion is consistent allowing for it to be a good standard of motion. We use the isotope's movement to compare to the interval which I believe is a process of motion we can not yet detect. In this respect the isotope is like a clock because it is used to compare motion to its own motion.

Neither of you need to expend any energy for this to happen.

Yes, I am not talking about observing time dilation. I am talking about what causes time dilation.

I'm not quite sure what you mean by "movement requires more energy the faster something moves". Movement is relative, so how fast you're moving is relative to whatever you're comparing with.

From the viewpoint of the reference frame, your increase in velocity takes ever more energy.

I think you might have answered what I was trying to say, thank you.

The apparent contradiction is due to the distortion of spacetime relative to that frame at relativistic speeds.

This is what I was trying to get at. I can explain time dilation without the need of space time distortion.

Imagine you are in the car and are moving fifty miles per hour. Let's say you move your hand to turn the air condition up. The movement of your hand requires a certain amount of energy. The amount of energy required to move your hand is more than if the car was not moving at all. This gets exaggerated to the point that if somehow you got your car to let's say half the speed of light the energy required to move your hand would be a lot more. Since the motion of your hand only happens with so much energy the motion of your hand has to slow down.

Movement is not an absolute, it is always relative to something else. In your example you are moving at the Earth's speed + the car's speed relative to whatever reference you're measuring the Earth's speed by (the sun?).

I apologize, this appears to be incident of the one those "language barrier" things I was talking about in a previous post. The additive nature of movement you and I have been talking about shows that movement isn't diminished in anyway, but simply built upon. I guess it depends on how you define absolute. Here's the definition from google that is most like mine,

"not qualified or diminished in any way; total."

In fact, your speed relative to that reference will be slightly less than the sum of the Earth's speed and the car's speed, because you can never travel faster than light relative to that reference. At everyday speeds, this isn't noticeable, but near the speed of light it is.

I agree.

We're not time dilated, except from the point of view of some observer moving relative to us, i.e. some observer in whatever frame you're using to measure Earth's speed. Our time is always normal to us (it's called proper time).

This means you are currently affected by time dilation, but since everyone on Earth is also moving at least the speed of the Earth it really doesn't matter for everyday life.

I am sorry for the misunderstanding. This is what I meant when I said everyone on Earth is time dilated because we are all moving the Earth's speed. Since we are all moving the same speed and are affected by the same time dilation and so it is unnoticeable and is what we refer to as "normal".

From an observers point of view we are time dilated from our point of view we are not. Both are true, but who is right? We can't be both be time dilated and not time dilated. That is highly illogical. The answer is simple. We are time dilated its just that since we don't perceive it we do not notice it and therefore it is not a part of our point of view. Another way of saying it is, what we perceive as normal is relative to what level of time dilation we are currently affected by.

Lorentz invariance basically means that the laws of physics look the same in all inertial frames, i.e. for all uniform motion. There is a formula you can use, called a Lorentz transformation, to calculate what things look like from another frame's point of view. For example, if you know your velocity relative to some other object, and you measure its length, you can apply a Lorentz transformation to calculate its proper length, i.e. the length someone on that object would measure it as.

Thank you for much for taking the time to explain that to me. Hopefully how I explained and see time dilation above will make more sense.


The flaw with your argument is you are assuming uncertainty terms such as ΔE purely relate to statistical noise such as sampling of a population.
Noise doesn't have to be statistical, it can include an external noise due to a physical cause which sampling alone will not reduce.
There is a physical interpretation to ΔE as I explained with the example of the broadening of spectral lines.
Variations in a photon's energy ΔE are due to variations in the photon's frequency Δv which in turn affects the evolution time of the state Δt.

Why does the type of noise matter? The more data you have the lower the uncertainty should be regardless of where it is coming from. Maybe there isn't something I am not understanding correctly.

The absorption or emission lines cannot be sharp else E is 100% defined making ΔE = 0 and Δt is undefined.

This is what I was getting at with the conundrum of math. What you are saying within the context of reality is, if I do not have any data, so I have a 100% uncertainty of what is going on.

Conversely Δt can never be zero as ΔE is no longer defined.

Well of course, if you don't have any data you can't know what is going on, let alone perform any math.

The higher the frequency which is cycles per second, the greater number of cycles that can be measured for any given time interval Δt.
Astronomers take spectra of very distant galaxies.
The width of the spectral lines which is a measurement of ΔE is independent of the exposure time which is not Δt.

This like saying I have one guy who polls people really fast, but another guy that polls people slow, if I give them till the sun goes down to poll people I will end up getting more data from the guy who is fast.

Not to be condescending, but I used the till the sun goes down instead of time to avoid confusion for those who may still not understand the true nature of time.

Thank you for all the information and for putting up with me.
 
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sjastro

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Why does the type of noise matter? The more data you have the lower the uncertainty should be regardless of where it is coming from. Maybe there isn't something I am not understanding correctly.
Statistical noise decreases with sample size, non random noise caused by a physical cause does not.
As explained ΔE is not statistical noise but has a physical cause.

This is what I was getting at with the conundrum of math. What you are saying within the context of reality is, if I do not have any data, so I have a 100% uncertainty of what is going on.



Well of course, if you don't have any data you can't know what is going on, let alone perform any math.



This like saying I have one guy who polls people really fast, but another guy that polls people slow, if I give them till the sun goes down to poll people I will end up getting more data from the guy who is fast.

Not to be condescending, but I used the till the sun goes down instead of time to avoid confusion for those who may still not understand the true nature of time.
With all due respect stop taking me out of context by trying to read your own opinions into the maths.
I have explained to you why the meaning of the equation ΔEΔt ≥ h/4 has nothing to do with what you think it is.
Let me repeat; Δt does not represent a sampling time and ΔE is not statistical noise determined by Δt.
Both ΔE and Δt have distinctly different physical causes.
ΔE is the uncertainty for the photon’s energy due to variation in its frequency while Δt is the time taken for the quantum state to change as a result of the physical interaction with photons.

In actual experiments such as obtaining the spectrum of a distant galaxy the spectral line width ΔE is independent of the exposure time which does not represent Δt.
 
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Here are my ideas,
  • Time is a physical property that describes comparative motion.
  • Time is not a prerequisite for motion, but is caused by motion.
I like this post, thanks for sharing your ideas.

But,
How can you have motion without time?
If motion were the cause of time then how do you first get motion?

Motion is of course a relative notion, there is no such thing as a stationary point in Space, hence no such thing as absolute motion.

Relative motion is something that we have, and we can observe an object as being stationary with respect to the observer. Even though we are stationary with respect to the surface of the Earth, we still observe that time passes. We see that earthworms move and that trees grow over time.
But this is on the Macro scale.
On the micro scale all atoms are vibrating (a form of motion), atoms also experience decay over time and the rate of decay is well known and accurate (as well as being relative to the passage of time).

What we know from Einstien's General Relativity that time is relative. Gravitational time dilation means that time will pass more slowly for an object on the surface of a massive object in comparison to an object in free space. We also have Time dilation where an object moving at high velocity from its observer will experience a different rate of time.
One of these requires motion, the other does not.

Also according to Einstien's General Relativity we don't have Space without time. We should not consider space as being a three dimensional euclidean "thing". We only have SpaceTime which is curved. How can we have motion without SpaceTime?
 
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