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There is the extreme example of this in the Jehovah's Witness's New World Translation where all passages showing the Deity of Jesus Christ are perverted to support their Arianism. Then conservatives, or evangelicals are quick to point out what they see as an anti-supernatural and anti-prophecy bias in the mainline translations: RSV, NEB, NRSV, REB; but are there significant biases and preconceptions in the translations put out by evangelicals and conservatives as well? As a clear example, consider the abortion debate, and the significance of Ex. 21:22.
“And if men struggle with each other and strike a woman with child so that she has a miscarriage, yet there is no further injury, he shall surely be fined as the woman’s husband may demand of him; and he shall pay as the judges decide." Ex. 21:22 NASB 1977
“If men struggle with each other and strike a woman with child so that she gives birth prematurely, yet there is no injury, he shall surely be fined as the woman’s husband may demand of him, and he shall pay as the judges decide." Ex. 21:22 NASB 1995
What happened to the NASB between 1977 and 1995? The significance of this verse in the abortion debate became apparent. While the Septuagint, Wycliffe and Douay translations clearly translate as a miscarriage, and that is continued in the RSV, NEB, NRSV and REB; the conservative evangelical versions have changed to some form of "gives birth prematurely". Has that been the understanding of some of our fathers in the faith?
In checking the commentaries, the understanding of miscarriage is held by the Puritans John Trapp and Matthew Poole; then Matthew Henry sees miscarriage here. Adam Clarke in the 19th century understands miscarriage. Even the early 20th century Lutheran Paul Kretzmann understands miscarriage.
Most of us probably use various translations. My choice is in this order: KJV, ASV, RSV, NEB, NRSV and REB. I view the KJV, ASV and the RSV as more literal word for word. The NEB and REB more dynamic and thought for thought. The NRSV seems to be closer to literal word for word yet goes thought for thought at times. I post this as my reasoning and approach, not insisting that any other see it like this.
“And if men struggle with each other and strike a woman with child so that she has a miscarriage, yet there is no further injury, he shall surely be fined as the woman’s husband may demand of him; and he shall pay as the judges decide." Ex. 21:22 NASB 1977
“If men struggle with each other and strike a woman with child so that she gives birth prematurely, yet there is no injury, he shall surely be fined as the woman’s husband may demand of him, and he shall pay as the judges decide." Ex. 21:22 NASB 1995
What happened to the NASB between 1977 and 1995? The significance of this verse in the abortion debate became apparent. While the Septuagint, Wycliffe and Douay translations clearly translate as a miscarriage, and that is continued in the RSV, NEB, NRSV and REB; the conservative evangelical versions have changed to some form of "gives birth prematurely". Has that been the understanding of some of our fathers in the faith?
In checking the commentaries, the understanding of miscarriage is held by the Puritans John Trapp and Matthew Poole; then Matthew Henry sees miscarriage here. Adam Clarke in the 19th century understands miscarriage. Even the early 20th century Lutheran Paul Kretzmann understands miscarriage.
Most of us probably use various translations. My choice is in this order: KJV, ASV, RSV, NEB, NRSV and REB. I view the KJV, ASV and the RSV as more literal word for word. The NEB and REB more dynamic and thought for thought. The NRSV seems to be closer to literal word for word yet goes thought for thought at times. I post this as my reasoning and approach, not insisting that any other see it like this.