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Statement of Purpose - Eschatology Forum Statement of Purpose
Statement of purpose:
Partial Preterism: Partial preterism holds that most eschatological prophecies, such as the destruction of Jerusalem, the Antichrists, the Great Tribulation, and the Advent of the Day of the Lord as a "judgment-coming" of Christ, were fulfilled either in AD 70 or during the persecution of Christians under the Emperor Nero.
The Second coming and the resurrection of the dead, however, have not yet occurred in the partial preterist system.
===========================
What about these 2 parousias that Partial Preterists seem to believe in?
Matthew 24:3
Yet of Him sitting on the Mount of the Olives, the Disciples came toward to Him according to own saying "be telling to us!
when shall these be being?
and what the sign of Thy parousia<3952> and full-end/consummation<4930> of the Age?
============================
James 5:8
be ye patient!, also stand-fast the hearts of ye, that the Parousia<3952> of the Lord has-neared<1448>
1 Peter 4:7
Of all-things yet the End<5056> is nigh<1448>
be sane then, and be sober into the prayers,
===========
The 2 parousias at this site:
Partial Preterism at PreteristArchive.com, The Internet's Only Balanced Look at Preterism
70ad:
A coming (parousia) of Christ
A day of the Lord
A judgment
The end of the Jewish Age
(Source: R.C. Sproul, Last Days)
Still future:
The Coming (parousia) of Christ
The Day of the Lord
The Resurrection of the dead
The Rapture of the living
The (final) Judgment
The end of history
===========================
Some articles on that particular Greek word:
Israel P. Warren: The Parousia, A Critical Study of the Scripture Doctrines of Christ's Second Coming, His Reign as King ; The Resurrection of the Dead (1879) - The Preterist Archive of Realized Eschatology
Daniel Harden: Overcoming Sproul’s Resurrection Obstacles (2007)
that when they gave these time statements, they knew just what was in close proximity. The full preterist view on the phrases parousia, the end of the age, and the day of the Lord follow the very same guidelines.
If there were more than one parousia, the New Testament would have been much clearer in detailing just which parousia was intended. No such qualifications are given. The lack of qualifications naturally lead to either (1) an intentional (or unintentional) confusion for the readers, or (2) the fact that no such qualification was needed, for there was only one parousia, end…
What’s more, Sproul states that the “final” coming will be universal in its scope and significance. Full preterists contend, as does Sproul elsewhere, that the parousia at A.D. 70 was indeed universal in significance, once and for all dispensing with the Old Covenant and consummating the New Covenant, thereby once and for all doing away with the distinction of “Jew” and “Gentile”. So the question must be asked of Sproul—is there a distinction anywhere in the Bible between the “universality” of the parousia at A.D. 70 and the “universality” of the “final” coming? How can such a distinction be made?
For above all else, nowhere in the New Testament is there any distinction made about which coming is referred to. Not once do we find any clarification, by Christ, Paul, Peter, or anybody else, of “this is not the final coming, but only the imminent parousia. The word “final”, for example, never appears in conjunction with a coming of Christ.
Indeed, if there were any clarification made in Scripture to distinguish different “comings”, it seems highly unlikely that dispensationalism would have evolved at all! But no, such a distinction made by Sproul in this paragraph is no-where to be found in the New Testament. In fact, in the Olivet discourse, where Sproul clearly applies Matt. 24:1-34 to the parousia, I would expect to see such a distinction made by Christ, if the latter part of Matt. 25 refers to the “final” coming that is different than the coming just mentioned. But no distinction is made. The discourse flows straight through without any perceivable change in topic.
========================
Statement of purpose:
Partial Preterism: Partial preterism holds that most eschatological prophecies, such as the destruction of Jerusalem, the Antichrists, the Great Tribulation, and the Advent of the Day of the Lord as a "judgment-coming" of Christ, were fulfilled either in AD 70 or during the persecution of Christians under the Emperor Nero.
The Second coming and the resurrection of the dead, however, have not yet occurred in the partial preterist system.
===========================
What about these 2 parousias that Partial Preterists seem to believe in?
Matthew 24:3
Yet of Him sitting on the Mount of the Olives, the Disciples came toward to Him according to own saying "be telling to us!
when shall these be being?
and what the sign of Thy parousia<3952> and full-end/consummation<4930> of the Age?
============================
James 5:8
be ye patient!, also stand-fast the hearts of ye, that the Parousia<3952> of the Lord has-neared<1448>
1 Peter 4:7
Of all-things yet the End<5056> is nigh<1448>
be sane then, and be sober into the prayers,
===========
The 2 parousias at this site:
Partial Preterism at PreteristArchive.com, The Internet's Only Balanced Look at Preterism
70ad:
A coming (parousia) of Christ
A day of the Lord
A judgment
The end of the Jewish Age
(Source: R.C. Sproul, Last Days)
Still future:
The Coming (parousia) of Christ
The Day of the Lord
The Resurrection of the dead
The Rapture of the living
The (final) Judgment
The end of history
===========================
Some articles on that particular Greek word:
Israel P. Warren: The Parousia, A Critical Study of the Scripture Doctrines of Christ's Second Coming, His Reign as King ; The Resurrection of the Dead (1879) - The Preterist Archive of Realized Eschatology
Daniel Harden: Overcoming Sproul’s Resurrection Obstacles (2007)
that when they gave these time statements, they knew just what was in close proximity. The full preterist view on the phrases parousia, the end of the age, and the day of the Lord follow the very same guidelines.
If there were more than one parousia, the New Testament would have been much clearer in detailing just which parousia was intended. No such qualifications are given. The lack of qualifications naturally lead to either (1) an intentional (or unintentional) confusion for the readers, or (2) the fact that no such qualification was needed, for there was only one parousia, end…
What’s more, Sproul states that the “final” coming will be universal in its scope and significance. Full preterists contend, as does Sproul elsewhere, that the parousia at A.D. 70 was indeed universal in significance, once and for all dispensing with the Old Covenant and consummating the New Covenant, thereby once and for all doing away with the distinction of “Jew” and “Gentile”. So the question must be asked of Sproul—is there a distinction anywhere in the Bible between the “universality” of the parousia at A.D. 70 and the “universality” of the “final” coming? How can such a distinction be made?
For above all else, nowhere in the New Testament is there any distinction made about which coming is referred to. Not once do we find any clarification, by Christ, Paul, Peter, or anybody else, of “this is not the final coming, but only the imminent parousia. The word “final”, for example, never appears in conjunction with a coming of Christ.
Indeed, if there were any clarification made in Scripture to distinguish different “comings”, it seems highly unlikely that dispensationalism would have evolved at all! But no, such a distinction made by Sproul in this paragraph is no-where to be found in the New Testament. In fact, in the Olivet discourse, where Sproul clearly applies Matt. 24:1-34 to the parousia, I would expect to see such a distinction made by Christ, if the latter part of Matt. 25 refers to the “final” coming that is different than the coming just mentioned. But no distinction is made. The discourse flows straight through without any perceivable change in topic.
========================
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