LoveGodsWord
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- Jun 5, 2017
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That is not provable from a biblical standpoint.
I am not saying it does not happen; I am sure it does. But it is NOT the act; rather it is the mental thoughts and fantasies that result in the lust.
The word for lust in Matt 5 is epithumeo - a strong desire. Elsewhere in the NT it is translated "covet;" as it is also used in the LXX to translate covet in the 10 commandments.
To covet is to desire and plan to take away something that is NOT YOURS. For a guy to imagine his wife, she IS his; and for that reason that is NOT LUST.
Rubbish! You were shown God's Word and the GREEK text meanings for fornication inappropriate contenteuō as applied to
1 CORINTHIANS 6:18 [18], FLEE FORNICATION. Every SIN that a man does is without the body; but he that commits FORNICATION SINS AGAINST HIS OWN BODY
GREEK WORD FORNICATION; πορνεύω; inappropriate contenteuō From G4204; to act the harlot, that is, (literally) indulge unlawful lust (of either sex), or (figuratively) practise idolatry: - commit (fornication).
As posted earlier the act involves indulging in unlawful lust. 1 CORINTHIANS 6:18 tells us to flee unlawful lust and that it is a SIN against the body.
Your trying to justifiy that it is ok to sin against the body when God's Word says it is not ok and tells us not to do it.
MATTHEW 5 epithumeo has nothing to do with the Greek Word used in 1 CORINTHIANS 6:18 which is inappropriate contenteuō which is unlawful lust against the body.
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