Interesting question. What do you believe. Did Jesus allow John to remain on the earth until his 2nd coming, or not? It is a legitimate bible question based on John 21. You now know what we believe, so tell us what you believe?
It's not a legitimate Bible question based on John 21 or any other passage. That's not how it's understood, and as mmksparbud already pointed out in post #42, the passage itself actually clarifies what it means when it says "yet Jesus said
not unto Him, he shall not die". So I don't know how you can get any other meaning out of that verse, since it specifies that it does not mean what the Mormon religion apparently claims it means. It'd be like trying to 'find the meaning' of Christ's Aramaic words in Mark 15:34 or Matthew 27:46. It literally tells you what that is in the verse. You don't need to wonder.
But since you have, here is what our father HH St. Cyril says in his
commentary on the Gospel of St. John. This is what I likewise believe. Concerning 21:20-23, he tell us:
The inspired Evangelist points to himself obscurely, but still sufficiently to indicate who is meant. For he it was who was the beloved disciple, and who leaned upon Christ's Breast at the last Supper, and asked who it was that should betray Him. Peter, then, observing him, longed for information, and sought to know in what perils he would be involved in the time to come, and in what way his life would end. But the question seemed unseemly, and it appeared to savour rather of a meddlesome and inquisitive spirit, that, after having learnt what was to happen unto himself, he should seek to know the future fate of others. For this cause, then, I think the Lord makes no direct reply to his question or inquiry, but, diverting the aim of the questioner, does not say that John will not die, but, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? That is to say, Thou hast heard, O Peter, the things concerning thyself, what need is there for thee to ask questions about others, and to seek to fathom out of season the knowledge of the Divine decrees. For if he never die at all, He says, what consolation will this be to thy heart? The man who is wise and prudent, then, if he is doomed to die, will not trouble himself as to whether another will be saved alive or not; for it will be enough for him to suffer his own doom, and he will receive no comfort at all from the misfortune or good cheer of another. The passage is fraught with some such meaning as this. Peter's speech here seems to imply that the blessed Peter anxiously desired to know what was destined to be John's fate, as he would have considered it a consolation in his own sufferings if John were surely fated to, die by torture, either of the same or of some other kind. And do not be amazed at this, but rather take the following thought into consideration. It is common to us, however profitless it be, to like at times not to be seen to be the only ones who are suffering, or who are destined to undergo some dreadful fate, but to prefer to hear that others have either suffered it already or are expected to suffer it in the future.
I have never said that they were 'right-teaching people'.
Yeah, I didn't put that in quotes cos it wasn't one. I am referring to the part of post #32 when you wrote this: "Many millions of good people continued to preach the gospel of Jesus Christ, and to do good works in his name and lived lives that resembled the life of Christ. I would call this faithful group through the ages, a remnant of the true church." I guess you either want to quibble about nothing, or "(continuing) to preach the gospel of Jesus Christ" isn't right teaching. Whatever.
The apostasy would cause the teachings to be unreliable. The fulness of the gospel would be lost, but a alternative gospel of mixed truth and man-made doctrine would be the norm. And that fulness would wane as time went by so that the churches.
And this is all even with St. John being alive still, according to Mormonism. I must ask then what is the point of St. John being alive? How does this fulfill our Lord's promise, if even though St. John is alive, so the authority given to the original apostles does not really perish after all (as I thought you guys believed, before I realized that you had this strange belief about St. John), it does not prevent the Great Apostasy from happening anyway?
I'm not sure why it is so difficult for you to understand that an apostasy can be in full stride, but there are a remnant that are trying to keep with the original church, but because of the lack of true leadership and revelation and authority, they continually loose their grasp on what the original church taught.
Again, how do they lack authority if the apostolic authority given to St. John is still around, because St. John himself is? I had originally thought, when starting this thread, that the claim to the lack of authority was tied to lack of having preserved these
teachings that Mormonism claims itself alone to have preserved in the 'restored church' or whatever. Now I'm not so sure that this is true, because not only are you admitting that, no, people from well within the period of the Great Apostasy, such as Mor Philoxenos of Mabbug (and, well...now I must assume basically anyone; you are free to pick and choose whatever you like from wherever if the apostasy does not need to be total), can still be teaching the right things that Mormonism usually claims only for itself, but also that St. John still lives, and his living is itself the fulfillment of Christ's promise that the gates of hell would not prevail against His Church.
Combining these two ideas (right teaching can remain with the 'remnant', and the promise of Christ is fulfilled because John is still alive -- both of these being the case
centuries into the Great Apostasy) results in an incredibly incoherent situation where the Great Apostasy happens no matter what, because it is
not tied to the abandonment of teaching(s) -- because again, that doesn't have to have happened, if you can have this 'remnant' who still teach those things well within the Apostasy -- and it is
not tied to deaths of the apostles and the subsequent lack of authority (even though I'm fairly sure that you yourself had argued before this thread that it was...? I may have you confused with another Mormon here; I just know I have read that here before with regard to the Great Apostasy) -- because again, St. John never died, so the authority never really went away. He was just told, according to you, not to pass it on to anyone else. But he still had it of himself, and he was still walking the earth all this time, while the great apostasy was going on.
So, tying it all together, if the Great Apostasy is not tied to a loss of teaching, and is not tied to authority, then what do we have left? Why did the Great Apostasy
actually happen? It seems that our friend Ignatius is 100% correct: that it happened because God willed it to happen, and there's no actual explaining of it outside of that. God
wanted the apostasy to happen.
And that is just the craziest thing I've ever heard. That is the not God that we worship in Christianity whatsoever.
Apostasy does not mean you stop going to church, it just means you are not being taught the fulness of the gospel, so you cannot live the fulness of the gospel.
That doesn't mean anything, Peter, "The fullness of the gospel." You don't get to still claim that after already admitting that this is not related to having preserved specific teachings, because if it means something
other than that, there is then no way to measure who does or does not have "the fullness of the gospel" (because we cannot say "Okay, what is missing in what group X teaches that group Y does teach, such that group Y has 'the fullness of the gospel', while group X does not"). So it becomes a meaningless statement. It is a meaningless statement.
God does not leave you to dry up and sweep you away, he understands your situation, and his solution is for all those who grew up in the ages of apostasy or never even heard of Jesus Christ, they will have that chance to hear the fulness of the gospel in the spirit world, it is for this reason that the gospel was preached also to them that are dead, so they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 Peter 4:6)
This may be your belief as a Mormon person, but not Christian in their right mind believes this, because it is nonsense. The harrowing of Hell was a one time event to offer life to those who had gone before the incarnation of Christ. Those of us who now live in the post-incarnational world do not need any 'spirit world' preaching done to us, and indeed, such a thing is nothing more than a Mormon fiction. If post-death repentance and transformative change of mind and heart could be assumed to be possible after death, then no one would need to accept Christ in this life, and many of His own sayings and parables (e.g., "Unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in you", the parable of the talents, etc.) would make absolutely no sense. Same with the rest of the scriptures, in fact. This idea makes a mockery out of living the Christian life.
Only a living apostle can ordain other apostles and only a living apostle can ordain a new bishop.
And in St. John, according to Mormonism, you have a living apostle who therefore could have done so, and no doubt would have wanted to if he saw this 'great apostasy' going on around him for centuries until Joseph Smith Jr. arrived, and yet did not do so because...why? All you say is that "obviously" he was told not to, but you don't give any actual evidence of it or reason for it. St. John just sat on his hands obediently for hundreds of years, waiting for JS to arrive...
The keys and authority are always passed on by the laying on of hands from the one holding the authority to the one getting the authority. There is no way that the authority emanates from John to anyone that thinks they should have it. It has to be given, like Jesus said to Peter, I will give unto you the 'keys of the KOH'. Peter just did not receive the keys by some kind of spiritual osmosis.
Okay. This is how bishops and priests are ordained in Orthodoxy and Catholicism, so you'll get no complaints from me regarding this method. The scriptures also provide us with the example of casting lots for the replacement of Judas, though. So we must not have a mechanical idea of how any of this works. Authority, at least in the Orthodox conception, is not magic, i.e., it's not a matter of the "correct" physical motions as though it's all 'form' over 'content', but must include maintaining the true faith. I assumed, again, that Mormonism agreed with this, since it believes that only it has the true faith anyway. This thread has taught me that this is not the case.
John or any of the apostles, eventually, stopped calling and ordaining new, living apostles, per Jesus.
"Per Jesus"
where? Where does Jesus ever say "Stop ordaining people after a certain point"? What is Mormonism's idea of the Great Commission, then?
John, although he has been on the earth since the time of Christ, was not given the right to pass on his authority to another apostle or to a new bishop.
Why? Again, what was the point of preserving him so that he could sit around, being alive but not doing anything?
If Peter for instance, had given Clement the 'keys to the KOH' and made him his successor, I am sure that Clement would have called himself an apostle, and not kept the title of bishop. But Peter did not pass that authority of the apostle to him, hence his title remained bishop.
No. This is all very much incorrect. The bishops are the direct successors of the apostles, through the laying on of hands that we were just talking about, from the founder of the Church at a particular location down to today. Remember in a much earlier post in this thread how I mentioned that each major see has maintained a list of such bishops down to this day? This is how they can trace their succession from the apostles until now. It has nothing to do with the title of "Bishop" vs. "Apostle", because the apostles ordained the bishops in the first place.
Linguistically, it would not have been correct or appropriate for a bishop to style himself an apostle, as "apostle" comes from Greek
apostolos, meaning "messenger, envoy, person sent forth". It is in this way that St. Mark is known as an Apostle, being the "Apostle to the Egyptians" (the one who was sent forth to Egypt), or that Sts. Cyril and Methodius are called "the Apostles to the Slavs". The bishop is the one who is
already there (not the one originally sent there) and is chosen to shepherd the community in a given place, "bishop" coming from the Greek
episkopos, meaning "overseeer".
They're not the same thing, so why would they hold the same title?
Granted, one can be
both (i.e., sent to a place and remaining there to shepherd the community, as happened with the bishops first sent to Philae in Nubia by HH St. Athanasius the Apostolic in the 340s), but ancient sources such as the ecclesiastical history of Eusebius and others show that it was common in the early Church to consider the first man ordained by the Apostle(s) in a given place to be its first bishop (e.g., in Alexandria, that would Ananios; in Antioch, that would be Evodius, etc).
Now, a bishop that was ordained by a living apostle would have the authority, even after the apostle died. He would have it until he was released or died himself. But a bishop could not pass his authority down to another bishop, it took a living apostle to replace a bishop.
Why?
To guard against the gates of hell prevailing over the church, I believe Jesus called on John to perform that service.
What service? According to you,
St. John didn't do anything while the entire Church went into irrecoverable apostasy, even as it preserved the very same teachings that Mormonism supposedly 'restored'!
Peter was first given the 'keys of the KOH'. And he lead the apostles his entire life. When he died, his keys had to have been given to John. It is unknown what John did with his time all these years, but I am sure he did much good for the Lord during this journey.
I really don't see how. The Mormon version of St. John is a failure by design.
In the resurrection, I will find out what occupied John's time. Interesting subject though.
Okay...
Either it was, and has been taken out, or Jesus did not want to reveal that information to the Church of Jesus Christ of First-century Saints. Although he does open the door for John to be on earth till his 2nd coming.
Uh huh.
It seems there's no actual answer to this question, but a vague "It means what we want it to mean, just because it does".
This is deeply unsatisfying and weird. Here I am, thinking that Mormonism has at least some basis for making what
it thinks is unique claims for itself (hence the OP), only to find out that nothing seems to be based in anything, because the apostasy doesn't have to be total (teachings that Mormonism thinks that only it has preserved can be preserved in other places and times and churches; doesn't matter), and doesn't have to be based in a loss of authority with the death of the apostles (because not all of them died after all). It's not about any of that after all. What is it about? Oh, we don't knowwww. St. John did some great work for God,
by doing absolutely nothing for hundreds of years while the Church collapsed around him. What 'much good' could he have done, then? We don't know that either, but we'll find out when the resurrection happens.
This has got to be the strangest, most vapid, most confused, most contradictory, most self-defeating bunch of hooey I've ever read on CF.