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Revelation 20:1 And I saw an angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
If verse 1 doesn't involve location, what does it involve then? Obviously, if an angel is seen coming down from heaven, this indicates this angel was initially in heaven, leaves heaven, then travels to a new location. Where is the logical location this angel would likely be coming to? The earth of course. This tells us that is because that is where the angel finds satan residing at the time.
What else does this tell us?
Revelation 12:7 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels,
8 And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven.
9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.
Obviously it tells us the initial fulfillment of Revelation 20:1 is meaning a time post the war in heaven, and also post a time satan being cast to the earth at the time. But if not that, thus satan still had access to heaven as of Revelation 20:1, why did the angel need to come down from heaven to bind satan if satan sill had access to heaven in some manner or another?
Revelation 12:12 Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.
13 And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child.
As soon as satan realizes he hath been cast to the earth, verse 13 is what he initially sets out to accomplish. Then when he ultimately fails at that, verse 17 is then his plan from that point on.
Revelation 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.
Where does his initial binding fit in with any of this? Nothing in Revelation 12:12-17 depicts a satan that is bound. All of it is depicting a satan that is loose. Therefore, the only logical place the binding of satan can possibly fit, is after the fulfillment of Revelation 12:12-17.
Obviously Revelation 12:17----and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ---this involves the 42 month reign of the beast in Revelation 13. This tells us satan is initially bound after the 42 month reign of the beast has run it's course. This clearly places the initial binding of satan at the end of this age, and not several thousand years ago instead. And if satan's initial binding has to occur in the end of this age, or better yet, once this age has ended, then so must the same be true of the thousand years of reigning with Christ.
As to the title of the thread then, taking into account what I just submitted, how can satan logically already be bound without contradicting anything in Revelation 12?
BTW, the way it looks to me, it doesn't matter where one places when satan is initially cast to the earth. Some place it 2000 years ago. Some place it in our future still. It still doesn't take away from the fact, that when satan is initially cast to the earth, he is not being depicted as being bound in a pit, he is being depicted as being on the loose. Plus like I also pointed out, all of Revelation 12:12-17 has to be fulfilled first, before satan can even get bound. Nothing in Revelation 12 involves satan's binding. Verse 17 has to conclude with the end of this age being the result eventually.
2 And he laid hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years,
3 And cast him into the bottomless pit, and shut him up, and set a seal upon him, that he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season.
If verse 1 doesn't involve location, what does it involve then? Obviously, if an angel is seen coming down from heaven, this indicates this angel was initially in heaven, leaves heaven, then travels to a new location. Where is the logical location this angel would likely be coming to? The earth of course. This tells us that is because that is where the angel finds satan residing at the time.
What else does this tell us?
Revelation 12:7 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels,
8 And prevailed not; neither was their place found any more in heaven.
9 And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him.
Obviously it tells us the initial fulfillment of Revelation 20:1 is meaning a time post the war in heaven, and also post a time satan being cast to the earth at the time. But if not that, thus satan still had access to heaven as of Revelation 20:1, why did the angel need to come down from heaven to bind satan if satan sill had access to heaven in some manner or another?
Revelation 12:12 Therefore rejoice, ye heavens, and ye that dwell in them. Woe to the inhabiters of the earth and of the sea! for the devil is come down unto you, having great wrath, because he knoweth that he hath but a short time.
13 And when the dragon saw that he was cast unto the earth, he persecuted the woman which brought forth the man child.
As soon as satan realizes he hath been cast to the earth, verse 13 is what he initially sets out to accomplish. Then when he ultimately fails at that, verse 17 is then his plan from that point on.
Revelation 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.
Where does his initial binding fit in with any of this? Nothing in Revelation 12:12-17 depicts a satan that is bound. All of it is depicting a satan that is loose. Therefore, the only logical place the binding of satan can possibly fit, is after the fulfillment of Revelation 12:12-17.
Obviously Revelation 12:17----and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ---this involves the 42 month reign of the beast in Revelation 13. This tells us satan is initially bound after the 42 month reign of the beast has run it's course. This clearly places the initial binding of satan at the end of this age, and not several thousand years ago instead. And if satan's initial binding has to occur in the end of this age, or better yet, once this age has ended, then so must the same be true of the thousand years of reigning with Christ.
As to the title of the thread then, taking into account what I just submitted, how can satan logically already be bound without contradicting anything in Revelation 12?
BTW, the way it looks to me, it doesn't matter where one places when satan is initially cast to the earth. Some place it 2000 years ago. Some place it in our future still. It still doesn't take away from the fact, that when satan is initially cast to the earth, he is not being depicted as being bound in a pit, he is being depicted as being on the loose. Plus like I also pointed out, all of Revelation 12:12-17 has to be fulfilled first, before satan can even get bound. Nothing in Revelation 12 involves satan's binding. Verse 17 has to conclude with the end of this age being the result eventually.
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