The replies come by the reams.
Name-dropping Saints and Doctors and Scholars and Concordance writers and spurious Bible translators...
Yes, we do have Doctors of divinity and scholars who have written copiously for decades AND others from historical antiquity just as FL has copiously proven. But the 'nominal church' is still bound by the theologies that came from the carnal minded non Spirit baptized "scribes" of Roman Catholicism long ago. They set their precedent 500 years after the predominant theology of UR/UNI reigned. And being as good as 'Church history has proven', the RC church killed anyone and burned anything written that 'they' considered heresy. But here you guys are, still sucking to up their eternal hell fire damnation theology just like Martin Luther did. As it is, dear old Martin Luther apparently just may have came to his own knowledge of 'the truth' a few years later.
"The After Life' by Henry Buckle pg 168
Luther writing to Hansen Von Rechenberg 1522.
“God forbid that I should limit the time of acquiring faith to the present life. In the depth of the Divine mercy there may be opportunity to win it.
in the future."
Martin Luther"
Not saying that 'even I' think, that Luther is correct in his theology of "
WINNING FAITH".
But still ignoring the ACTUAL definition of the NT Greek word "aiōnios".
G166
aiōnios
1) without beginning and end, that which always has been and always will be
2) without beginning
3) without end, never to cease, everlasting
Grow up, your post is unanswered Steve because it's 'been answered' many times. But if you are not willing to read more than a kid who doesn't want to read, you can't be un-indoctrinated. And it is that indoctrination which makes for a difficult debate from those who have read studied and argued ad infinitum with so many like you.
But, just this one time, I'm going to try to provide you with a brief 'cookie' teaching, you can hopefully chew.
AION and AIONIOS
Aion is a
noun, and
aionios is an
adjective. The adjective 'aionios' has little to do with the
'quantity' of time in an 'eon/age'. But is majorly concerned with the
'quality' of something that takes place in the time of an 'eon/age'.
For example, the 'noun
/hour' is 60 minutes long. I can go to an
'hourly/adjective'
'meeting/noun
' which has little to do with the
quantity of time in that 'hour/noun
'. But the adjective does describe what
quality takes place anywhere IN that hour's time frame. And in this analogy above, that quality is the '
meeting'. And, it is a meeting that doesn't even have to last the full 60 minutes of an 'hour'.
So we always apply those grammar laws when we define the
noun "aion" as '
an age'. And we then always define it's
adjective "
aionios/age during", as being descriptive of 'what' is taking place during an 'aion/age' time period. IOW
"aionios life" and "
aionios punishment". IOW "life" and "punishment" are both taking place during the same "aion" or "age".
But
Eternal Hellers define "aion" as either an "age" or "eternity", based totally upon their theology and then call it a definition being
defined by context. This is ridiculous for two reasons. One being 'their definition' of an 'aion', and the other is 'their application'. To have one word even be capable of being 'defined' as both an '
age' AND '
eternity' is no definition at all.
But in compounding their translational error, Eternal Heller's '
contex' is then determined by their '
pretext'...which is believing in Eternal 'judgment/death/hell'. I hope this helps you see where we line up not only with the heart of God which is that '
we ought always to forgive'....LIKE HIM, we also line up with the rules of grammar.
“Aionios”
Here is a verse as found in our King James Bibles:
Titus 1:2 In hope of eternal (aionios) life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world (aionios) began;
The words “
eternal” and “
world” are both the exact same Greek word—“
aionios.” Remember a definition from Strong’s is eternal? So the natural question is why didn't the King James translators translate it the same in both cases? Simply because it wouldn’t make any sense! Let's try it.
Titus 1:2 In hope of eternal life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the eternity began.
What does “
before the eternity began” mean Steve? We know just what the translators knew back then, and that is this, there is no such thing as
“before eternity,” so in order to make the verse work and support their theology, they had to change the meaning AND English interpretation of the Greek word aion (also called a
'scribe's lying pen'). They did so, to make the definition mean something that was obviously temporal. And in this case they used the word “
world.” There is a word in the Greek language for “
world” and it is the noun “
kosmos,” Clearly, we cannot translate the second “
aionios” to mean “
eternal” because to do so, we would have to admit that there was something BEFORE eternity.
So in this one little verse, we have clearly shown that you cannot always translate “aionios” to mean “eternal”.
As I said earlier Steve, you
again aren't even posting to 'understand' anything. You are simply proving how indoctrinated you are, with all your posts ARGUING how we're wrong. It is boring me, because I have studied from your position, because it was mine. It is no longer.
