@dzheremi
Mormonism:
However, the scriptures are not always consistent in the use of the word, especially in the Bible. For example, when Jesus purportedly said to the thief on the cross, “To day shalt thou be with me in paradise” (Luke 23:43), the Bible rendering is incorrect. The statement would more accurately read, “Today shalt thou be with me in the world of spirits” since the thief was not ready for paradise (see HC 5:424–25).
What on earth are they basing this conclusion on? I don't know Greek all that well (I can read it, I can understand the declensions, etc.), but even I can read in the original the word is Παραδείσῳ
Paradeiso, which they are correct probably comes through Persian/Arabic (the Arabs borrowed it from the Persians) فردوس
ferdous, though being Persian I have seen
some sources that trace it back ultimately to the Avestan language (the language of the Zoroastrian scriptures; the Persians were largely Zoroastrians before the coming of Islam, with minorities of Jews and Christians), where the word
pairidaiza apparently means 'enclosure, park', which is the meaning the word originally had when the Greeks adopted it.
At no point in its history did it
ever mean anything like "world of spirits". At the link above you can even see the Proto-Indo-European roots of which the word is composed (Persian and Avestan both being Indo-European languages, just like English is), meaning something like "walled in" ("around" + "to make, form (a wall)").
There's no possible way you can make it mean "world of spirits". This is in "Reformed Egyptian" territory of ridiculous linguistic claims.
F- for the Mormons on this one. Zero stars. Unless the "HC" in the citation is some book that changes the history of Indo-European linguistics to make words mean something completely disconnected from their roots, this is just absolute nonsense. And so it
is absolute nonsense.
Possibly 2 Cor. 12:4 should also not use “paradise” in the sense of meaning the spirit world, as much as meaning the celestial kingdom. The “paradisiacal glory” of
A of F 1:10 refers to the glorified millennial state of the earth rather than the spirit world.
Paradise
No also to this. The form used in 2 Cor. 12:4 is Παράδεισον
Paradeison, which is just the accusative masculine singular (because it's
ton Paradeison, in the accusative case, rather than the other verse which is
to Paradeiso, in the dative case).
My goodness, this stuff is so basic...do I have to fake-join the Mormon religion to get whatever numbskull who wrote this entry fired? Will they be teaching him or her how to not make things up anymore in the spirit world? That's the lesson they apparently really need.
Don't get me wrong, I very much appreciate you sharing Mormon's sources and views with me, as always.
(I hope this is not coming across like angry ranting.) I just very much do not appreciate how full of ridiculous claims those sources are. I mean, I debunked this in less than five minutes by visiting two non-sectarian (not 'anti-Mormon') websites -- one for a Greek-English interlinear text of the verses in the question, and another for the etymology of the word used in them. Why Mormons can't take less than five minutes for the sake of their faith to figure out whether or not what they're reading is a blatant lie is beyond me, but they really should. It's sad. Their leaders and their sources should not be able to get away with such manipulation.