Where is the Evidence of a Gap in the 70 weeks of Dan 9?

Is there a "gap" in the 70 weeks of Daniel 9"


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Douggg

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The sign above Jesus was in Hebrew, Roman/Latin and Greek

In Revelation 9, the destroyer is in the Grecian language:

In Reve 6, the Roman denari is mentioned. Any significance to this?
You mean the three different languages?

"I don't know".

However, the destroyer in the bottomless pit though in Revelation 9 - is an angel. As that is what the text says.
 
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safswan

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Transgressors have not yet reached their fullness, as is stated in verse 23, and no Greek prince has yet arisen against the Prince of princes, which is Jesus himself, as is clearly stated in verse 25. And the two thousand three hundred desolation of verse 14 has not yet occurred.


"The transgressors are come to the full", refer to the people of Israel filling up their cup where sin is concerned.This is the time when the, "king of fierce countenance, and understanding dark sentences, shall stand up" and shall accomplish the punishment desired as he, "shall destroy wonderfully, and shall prosper, and practise, and shall destroy the mighty and the holy people."

This is similar to what was said of others before.

Genesis 15:
16But in the fourth generation they shall come hither again: for the iniquity of the Amorites is not yet full.

When it became full,Israel entered the land and took control of the same and so the Amorites were punished for their sins.

There is nothing in the passage which indicates the, "Prince of princes", is the Lord Jesus.In fact the acts of the little horn were acts against the God of Israel as he sought to Hellenize those under his authority and for certain the God of Israel can be depicted as the ruler of rulers which is the basic meaning of, "Prince of princes".

As the casting down of the host and the stars to the ground is his destruction of the mighty and holy people(Daniel 8: 24, 10),then the prince of the host(vs.11)could also be a reference to the high priest and the ruler of the temple(See,Leviticus 4:3;II Chronicles 31:12,13)as the activity is also associated with the daily and the sanctuary.

Another possibility is seen when the events of Daniel 10 are examined.In this passage we see angelic beings described as princes with one designated a chief prince and a prince of the people of Israel.(Daniel 10:11-21)

With all this in mind,with nothing to point definitively to the Lord Jesus and with the restricted timeline of the Grecian Kingdom it is obvious that this is not a reference to the Lord Jesus.

The actions of the little horn in waxing great and the taking away of the daily and the casting down of the sanctuary were to be accomplished in the space of 2300 days(evening and mornings)since it would take that time before the sanctuary is cleansed.

Daniel 8:
13Then I heard one saint speaking, and another saint said unto that certain saint which spake, How long shall be the vision concerning the daily sacrifice, and the transgression of desolation, to give both the sanctuary and the host to be trodden under foot?
14And he said unto me, Unto two thousand and three hundred days; then shall the sanctuary be cleansed.

Hence the little horn will be around for the duration of the activity described above.This cannot be a time of 2300 yrs as some claim but did occur during the time Antiochus oppressed the people of Israel.
 
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safswan

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The vision does not include things "outside of that context."

Of course it does not but it is your interpretation that would cause this to appear to be so.

But you are ignoring the fact that the visions of Daniel go far beyond ancient times, and extend to the time which the scriptures call "the time of the end." Two powers are identified by their ancient histories, and then their activities in "the time of the end" are taken up.

I am ignoring nothing,rather it is you who are adding to scripture where Daniel 8 is concerned. Daniel 2 and 7,extend to the coming of the Lord but other passages like Daniel 8 and by extension Daniel 9, are in the past and the two kingdoms identified in Daniel 8 are clearly stated as Media and Persia and Grecia.Not only are the kingdoms identified but the major king of Grecia is also identified which allows a firm timeline to be established which does not extend beyond the kingdom of Grecia.

One of these is the Roman power, which the scriptures clearly reveal will be revived, and the other is the Greek power, concerning which there are numerous prophecies which have unquestionably not been fulfilled, even to this day.

The Roman power is described as the fourth kingdom in Daniel 2 and Daniel 7. It is not described as any entity in Daniel 8.It is only implied as affecting the Grecian ruler described in the passage.

Concerning the Greek power and prophecies which have not been fulfilled,I ask again:

"I pray tell us what these might be."


Daniel 11 takes this up in detail, identifying "the king of the south" and "the king of the north" with a detailed prophecy of their multi-generational war. Every detail of verses 1-35 was fulfilled exactly as stated. But then verse 35 describes a condition that it says will continue "even to the time of the end." Then, verse 36 takes up the account again, but none of the rest of this chapter has happened. It all remains to be fulfilled in the future.

The verses in question:

Dan 11:
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.
36And the king shall do according to his will; and he shall exalt himself, and magnify himself above every god, and shall speak marvellous things against the God of gods, and shall prosper till the indignation be accomplished: for that that is determined shall be done.
37Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers, nor the desire of women, nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all.
38But in his estate shall he honour the God of forces: and a god whom his fathers knew not shall he honour with gold, and silver, and with precious stones, and pleasant things.
39Thus shall he do in the most strong holds with a strange god, whom he shall acknowledge and increase with glory: and he shall cause them to rule over many, and shall divide the land for gain.

Again we are confused by the statement, "the time of the end".A proper reading and understanding of the passage in question should alleviate this however.There is no indication that the description of events is moving to the days prior to the coming of the Lord.The statement in vs.35,is simply showing that the events being depicted are for a time future to Daniel and that there is a time appointed for them to be concluded i.e., come to an end and this would be the time of the end where these events are concerned.

If this is not understood however there are other portions of the visions and explanations which shed light on the meaning of the term "time of the end".

The phrase,"time of the end", is best explained in Daniel 11 and in Daniel 8,also.

Daniel 11:
27.....for yet the end shall be at the time appointed.

Daniel 8:
19And he said, Behold, I will make thee know what shall be in the last end of the indignation: for at the time appointed the end shall be.

The time of the end is the time God has appointed for the events described in the vision to be accomplished.

end - ( Strong's,7093) Contracted from ,7112; an extremity; adverbially (with prepositional prefix) after:

From the statements and meaning above it can be seen that the word end can refer to a time after the present but not necessarily at the end of the world.




I know that there are some who falsely claim that the lat portion of this chapter has also been fulfilled. But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35.


There is a paucity of very reliable information concerning the events of the time concerned.Rather than assume the events described in the vision were not accomplished by Antiochus IV, because we cannot find, in history,full details of the same,it is best we accept what is sure and leave the rest without explanation.What is certain is that the events take place during the time the kingdom of Grecia was ruling but waning in power.Rome is nowhere seen in this vision as the leading protagonist.
 
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Biblewriter

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Concerning the Greek power and prophecies which have not been fulfilled,I ask again:

"I pray tell us what these might be."
but waning in power.Rome is nowhere seen in this vision as the leading protagonist.

There are a significant number of scriptural prophecies about one of these "Greek" powers which have unquestionably never been fulfilled, even to the present day.

One of these is "When the Assyrian comes into our land, And when he treads in our palaces, Then we will raise against him Seven shepherds and eight princely men. They shall waste with the sword the land of Assyria, And the land of Nimrod at its entrances; Thus He shall deliver us from the Assyrian, When he comes into our land And when he treads within our borders." Micah 5:5-6

When "the Assyrian invaded in ancient times, there was no strength to resist his attack, much less "Seven shepherds and eight princely men." And no Israelite army ever wasted "the land of Assyria" "with the sword." So there is no way to even pretend that this prophecy has been fulfilled.

Another such prophecy is about the invasion by "the Assyrian." There we read, "He has come to Aiath, He has passed Migron; At Michmash he has attended to his equipment. They have gone along the ridge, They have taken up lodging at Geba. Ramah is afraid, Gibeah of Saul has fled. Lift up your voice, O daughter of Gallim! Cause it to be heard as far as Laish-- O poor Anathoth! Madmenah has fled, The inhabitants of Gebim seek refuge. As yet he will remain at Nob that day; He will shake his fist at the mount of the daughter of Zion, The hill of Jerusalem." Isaiah 10:28-32

There are few events in ancient history more absolutely established than the campaign of Sennacherib against Hezekiiah. We do not just have medieval copies of ancient descriptions of this campaign. But we have the actual ancient documents themselves, prepared at the order of the rulers involved. These were pressed into clay and fired into terra-cotta, thus making the actual ancient documents themselves indestructible. Archeologists have found numerous copies of Sennacherib's account of this campaign. And we have the clear testimiony of scripture about it as well. And Sennacherib most certainly did not invade Judea by following this path. Nor did any other ancient invader. So this is a second prophecy that unquestionably has never been fulfilled. But both of them are about someone they call "the Assyrian."

But ancient Assyria ruled over the same territory as the "king of the north" of Daniel 11, several hundred years earlier than "the king of the north." So he is one of the "Greeks" mentioned in other prophecies.
 
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Biblewriter

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Could you or anyone else explain how this transition or rather dramatic twist takes place?Some say it occurs at vs. 40.
The transition is clearly stated in verse 36, where it says, "even to the time of the end."
 
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safswan

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There are a significant number of scriptural prophecies about one of these "Greek" powers which have unquestionably never been fulfilled, even to the present day.

One of these is "When the Assyrian comes into our land, And when he treads in our palaces, Then we will raise against him Seven shepherds and eight princely men. They shall waste with the sword the land of Assyria, And the land of Nimrod at its entrances; Thus He shall deliver us from the Assyrian, When he comes into our land And when he treads within our borders." Micah 5:5-6



You must be joking.What does this or anything else that you wrote have to do with the events described in Daniel 8,9,11 ?
 
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safswan

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safswan said:
Could you or anyone else explain how this transition or rather dramatic twist takes place?Some say it occurs at vs. 40.
The transition is clearly stated in verse 36, where it says, "even to the time of the end."

This clearly shows your misunderstanding and hence
misrepresentation of what the passage says.

Dan 11:
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.
36And the king shall do according to his will; and he shall exalt himself, and magnify himself above every god, and shall speak marvellous things against the God of gods, and shall prosper till the indignation be accomplished: for that that is determined shall be done.

There is no transition in verse 35(not vs.36) which contains the phrase you quote.This is a concluding statement,commenting on what had transpired before and hence is saying,all that was said prior to this statement,is yet for a time appointed i.e. for the time of the end.It does not say the following is for "a time appointed" ,or for,
"the time of the end",
but points to all as being for that time.

This of course is contrary to your statement that:

"I know that there are some who falsely claim that the lat portion of this chapter has also been fulfilled. But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35."

So,I am still asking for someone of that belief to explain how and where the transition takes place.As of now it is the figment of someone's imagination.
 
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Biblewriter

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safswan said:
Could you or anyone else explain how this transition or rather dramatic twist takes place?Some say it occurs at vs. 40.


This clearly shows your misunderstanding and hence
misrepresentation of what the passage says.

Dan 11:
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.
36And the king shall do according to his will; and he shall exalt himself, and magnify himself above every god, and shall speak marvellous things against the God of gods, and shall prosper till the indignation be accomplished: for that that is determined shall be done.

There is no transition in verse 35(not vs.36) which contains the phrase you quote.This is a concluding statement,commenting on what had transpired before and hence is saying,all that was said prior to this statement,is yet for a time appointed i.e. for the time of the end.It does not say the following is for "a time appointed" ,or for,
"the time of the end",but points to all as being for that time.

This of course is contrary to your statement that:

"I know that there are some who falsely claim that the lat portion of this chapter has also been fulfilled. But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35."

So,I am still asking for someone of that belief to explain how and where the transition takes place.As of now it is the figment of someone's imagination.

You are neglecting the clearly stated words, "even to" in the statement "even to the time of the end." The Hebrew word used here is 'ad, which, in this usage, CLEARLY means "until." This is a statement defining how long the previously described condition would last. Nothing but prejudice could prevent a person from understanding this.
 
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safswan

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You are neglecting the clearly stated words, "even to" in the statement "even to the time of the end." The Hebrew word used here is 'ad, which, in this usage, CLEARLY means "until." This is a statement defining how long the previously described condition would last. Nothing but prejudice could prevent a person from understanding this.


I am not neglecting anything and there is no prejudice.I have simply pointed out to you that the prophecy which you say is to the time of the end i.e in our future was said by you to have already been fulfilled when you said:

"But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35."

The term,""even to the time of the end.",does not only apply to what comes after the statement but also and especially to what had been previously described.Which you say is fulfilled.Read the passage in question again:

Dan 11:
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

This is the plain and simple understanding of the passage and it is only a desperate person or one lacking in basic R & C who would try to put a transition here when there is none.As I said it is simply the figment of someone's imagination which many,including you,have adopted.
 
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Biblewriter

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I am not neglecting anything and there is no prejudice.I have simply pointed out to you that the prophecy which you say is to the time of the end i.e in our future was said by you to have already been fulfilled when you said:

"But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35."

The term,""even to the time of the end.",does not only apply to what comes after the statement but also and especially to what had been previously described.Which you say is fulfilled.Read the passage in question again:

Dan 11:
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

This is the plain and simple understanding of the passage and it is only a desperate person or one lacking in basic R & C who would try to put a transition here when there is none.As I said it is simply the figment of someone's imagination which many,including you,have adopted.

Your analysis of what I said is no better than your analysis of scripture.

I refuse to engage in a battle of wits with an unarmed man.
 
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safswan

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Your analysis of what I said is no better than your analysis of scripture.

I refuse to engage in a battle of wits with an unarmed man.


Oh how chivalrous of you.LOL. This response is typical of you.When you can't prove your position or refute that which is presented,you belittle your opponent and their views and avoid the issue.As I said before:

"Dead flies cause the ointment of the apothecary to send forth a stinking savour: so doth a little folly him that is in reputation for wisdom and honour."

It would be best if you would repent of your folly.
 
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Biblewriter

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Oh how chivalrous of you.LOL. This response is typical of you.When you can't prove your position or refute that which is presented,you belittle your opponent and their views and avoid the issue.As I said before:

"Dead flies cause the ointment of the apothecary to send forth a stinking savour: so doth a little folly him that is in reputation for wisdom and honour."

It would be best if you would repent of your folly.
I said this because, and specifically because, you represented my response as being TOTALLY different from what I actually said. And this is what you do with the scriptures.
 
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safswan

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I said this because, and specifically because, you represented my response as being TOTALLY different from what I actually said. And this is what you do with the scriptures.

I will try to explain your dilemma,which you seem oblivious to,one more time.

You say Daniel 11:1-35,has been fulfilled when you wrote:

"But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35."

I also agree that these verses have been fulfilled.

You claim there is a transition and identified the place this occurs when you wrote:

"The transition is clearly stated in verse 36, where it says, "even to the time of the end."

I corrected that statement because the phrase; "even to the time of the end.",is actually found in verse 35.Read it here:

Dan 11:
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

Your claim would then be;the following verses, i.e., verses 36 onwards refer to unfulfilled events as you apply the phrase to these verses.

A basic reading and understanding of the passage denies this.The phrase was introduced in reference to what had transpired in the verses prior to and including verse 35.The, "some of them of understanding shall fall",is in reference to what had occurred before which was:

Dan 11:
30For the ships of Chittim shall come against him: therefore he shall be grieved, and return, and have indignation against the holy covenant: so shall he do; he shall even return, and have intelligence with them that forsake the holy covenant.
31And arms shall stand on his part, and they shall pollute the sanctuary of strength, and shall take away the daily sacrifice, and they shall place the abomination that maketh desolate.
32And such as do wickedly against the covenant shall he corrupt by flatteries: but the people that do know their God shall be strong, and do exploits.
33And they that understand among the people shall instruct many: yet they shall fall by the sword, and by flame, by captivity, and by spoil, many days.
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.

The narrative continues(not transitions)into verse 35 and makes a concluding statement about the events and when they are to take place when it says:

Dan 11:
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

All of this is in reference to what had transpired before this statement, and hence cannot be a transition as you claim,since you also say these verses have been fulfilled in every detail.

I have misrepresented neither your statements nor the scriptures in question but have simply shown where your understanding of the passage is deficient and the conundrum it places you in.
 
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iamlamad

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I will try to explain your dilemma,which you seem oblivious to,one more time.

You say Daniel 11:1-35,has been fulfilled when you wrote:

"But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35."

I also agree that these verses have been fulfilled.

You claim there is a transition and identified the place this occurs when you wrote:

"The transition is clearly stated in verse 36, where it says, "even to the time of the end."

I corrected that statement because the phrase; "even to the time of the end.",is actually found in verse 35.Read it here:

Dan 11:
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

Your claim would then be;the following verses, i.e., verses 36 onwards refer to unfulfilled events as you apply the phrase to these verses.

A basic reading and understanding of the passage denies this.The phrase was introduced in reference to what had transpired in the verses prior to and including verse 35.The, "some of them of understanding shall fall",is in reference to what had occurred before which was:

Dan 11:
30For the ships of Chittim shall come against him: therefore he shall be grieved, and return, and have indignation against the holy covenant: so shall he do; he shall even return, and have intelligence with them that forsake the holy covenant.
31And arms shall stand on his part, and they shall pollute the sanctuary of strength, and shall take away the daily sacrifice, and they shall place the abomination that maketh desolate.
32And such as do wickedly against the covenant shall he corrupt by flatteries: but the people that do know their God shall be strong, and do exploits.
33And they that understand among the people shall instruct many: yet they shall fall by the sword, and by flame, by captivity, and by spoil, many days.
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.

The narrative continues(not transitions)into verse 35 and makes a concluding statement about the events and when they are to take place when it says:

Dan 11:
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

All of this is in reference to what had transpired before this statement, and hence cannot be a transition as you claim,since you also say these verses have been fulfilled in every detail.

I have misrepresented neither your statements nor the scriptures in question but have simply shown where your understanding of the passage is deficient and the conundrum it places you in.
So the time of Antiochus Epiphanes ENDS with verse 35 as the TYPE of the beast, and then verse 36 is about the Beast of Revelation 13. The ending of Antiochus' desolation was to end at an "appointed" time. (Chapter 8)
 
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iamlamad

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Dan 11:
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

This is the plain and simple understanding of the passage and it is only a desperate person or one lacking in basic R & C who would try to put a transition here when there is none.As I said it is simply the figment of someone's imagination which many,including you,have adopted.
34 and 35 above comes right out of chapter 8 and is about Antiochus and the Jews during his time of desolation.
 
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iamlamad

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You are neglecting the clearly stated words, "even to" in the statement "even to the time of the end." The Hebrew word used here is 'ad, which, in this usage, CLEARLY means "until." This is a statement defining how long the previously described condition would last. Nothing but prejudice could prevent a person from understanding this.
Perhaps preconceived glasses!
 
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DavidPT

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I am not neglecting anything and there is no prejudice.I have simply pointed out to you that the prophecy which you say is to the time of the end i.e in our future was said by you to have already been fulfilled when you said:

"But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35."

The term,""even to the time of the end.",does not only apply to what comes after the statement but also and especially to what had been previously described.Which you say is fulfilled.Read the passage in question again:

Dan 11:
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

This is the plain and simple understanding of the passage and it is only a desperate person or one lacking in basic R & C who would try to put a transition here when there is none.As I said it is simply the figment of someone's imagination which many,including you,have adopted.


Daniel 8:17 So he came near where I stood: and when he came, I was afraid, and fell upon my face: but he said unto me, Understand, O son of man: for at the time of the end shall be the vision

Daniel 11:35 And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

Daniel 11:40 And at the time of the end shall the king of the south push at him: and the king of the north shall come against him like a whirlwind, with chariots, and with horsemen, and with many ships; and he shall enter into the countries, and shall overflow and pass over.

Daniel 12:4 But thou, O Daniel, shut up the words, and seal the book, even to the time of the end: many shall run to and fro, and knowledge shall be increased.

Daniel 12:9 And he said, Go thy way, Daniel: for the words are closed up and sealed till the time of the end.

In my mind, right or wrong, all of the above passages where they each mention the time of the end, they are all refrencing the same time of the end. And if I am correct about that, in my mind as well, the time of the end meant has to at least be meaning a time post the first advent. That would indicate any past commentators many seem to rely on for their understanding of many of these passages in Daniel, that if any of these past commentators concluded some or all of these passages were already fulfilled prior to the first advent, they would be contradicting Daniel 12:9 in that case.

Obviously, if the words are closed up and sealed till the time of the end, they then can't be fully understood by anyone prior to the time of the end. That means any past commentators who took Daniel 8:17, for instance, to have already been fulfilled before the first advent, assuming, in reality, the time of the end is actually meaning post the first advent instead, this would mean these past commentators understood absolutely zero about what they were alleging to have understood at the time.

I'm not claiming they were then wrong about everything in the book of Daniel, but only claiming they would have been wrong about anything in the book of Daniel having to do with the time of the end, and they then claiming the time of the end meant preceeded the first advent somehow. If they have Antiochus fulfilling some of these passages, such as Daniel 8:17, that would indicate the time of the end meant does not follow the first advent, but proceeds it instead.

And then one has to logically explain how some of these past commentators understood some of these things while the words, and the book were still sealed, that according to Daniel 12:9?
 
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Biblewriter

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I will try to explain your dilemma,which you seem oblivious to,one more time.

You say Daniel 11:1-35,has been fulfilled when you wrote:

"But the "fulfillment" they claim is only a few incidents that very approximately match a portion of the text, not the precise fulfillment of every detail found in verses 1-35."

I also agree that these verses have been fulfilled.

You claim there is a transition and identified the place this occurs when you wrote:

"The transition is clearly stated in verse 36, where it says, "even to the time of the end."

I corrected that statement because the phrase; "even to the time of the end.",is actually found in verse 35.Read it here:

Dan 11:
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

Your claim would then be;the following verses, i.e., verses 36 onwards refer to unfulfilled events as you apply the phrase to these verses.

A basic reading and understanding of the passage denies this.The phrase was introduced in reference to what had transpired in the verses prior to and including verse 35.The, "some of them of understanding shall fall",is in reference to what had occurred before which was:

Dan 11:
30For the ships of Chittim shall come against him: therefore he shall be grieved, and return, and have indignation against the holy covenant: so shall he do; he shall even return, and have intelligence with them that forsake the holy covenant.
31And arms shall stand on his part, and they shall pollute the sanctuary of strength, and shall take away the daily sacrifice, and they shall place the abomination that maketh desolate.
32And such as do wickedly against the covenant shall he corrupt by flatteries: but the people that do know their God shall be strong, and do exploits.
33And they that understand among the people shall instruct many: yet they shall fall by the sword, and by flame, by captivity, and by spoil, many days.
34Now when they shall fall, they shall be holpen with a little help: but many shall cleave to them with flatteries.

The narrative continues(not transitions)into verse 35 and makes a concluding statement about the events and when they are to take place when it says:

Dan 11:
35And some of them of understanding shall fall, to try them, and to purge, and to make them white, even to the time of the end: because it is yet for a time appointed.

All of this is in reference to what had transpired before this statement, and hence cannot be a transition as you claim,since you also say these verses have been fulfilled in every detail.

I have misrepresented neither your statements nor the scriptures in question but have simply shown where your understanding of the passage is deficient and the conundrum it places you in.

Your reply clearly demonstrates your inability to actually understand what was said. You claim, without a particle of grammatical justification, that the words "even to the time of the end" apply to everything said from verse 30 through 35. The obvious meaning of that clause was that it applied to the sentence which it terminated. This is the point of the jump.

And indeed, history clearly shows the same thing. For everything in every statement up to that sentence was completely fulfilled, without a single detail being omitted. But nothing after that sentence has been fulfilled, other than in the exceedingly general sense pretended to be fulfilments by Preterists, Historicists, and the like.
 
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