Hebrews 6 explicitly refutes this ...
4 For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost,
5 And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come,
6 If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put him to an open shame.
You're really speaking of relationship, ... not fellowship. We are born into relationships (which never pass away). A child of God can be, for a time, out of fellowship with God, ... while the relationship is still maintained.
David was, certainly, not in fellowship with God due to his sin with Bathsheba, ... but his relationship with God endured. In his prayer of repentance, David pleaded that God would restore the JOY ... of his (existing) salvation ... and not TAKE His Holy Spirit from him.
Relationship is a God-given and sustained attribute of our being. Fellowship is something more under the control of our own selves. We can't really break relationships, which are God-given ... we can only break fellowships (which we sometimes refer to as relationships).
Saved persons do not ask for forgiveness of sins ? ... or a clean heart ? ... or a restored right spirit ???As for David: Yes, he lost his salvation, otherwise he would not have sought forgiveness of his sins with the Lord and for him to ask for a clean heart and a right spirit within him again (See Psalms 51).
Saved persons do not ask for forgiveness of sins ? ... or a clean heart ? ... or a restored right spirit ???
It may be confusing to you, but in light of the principles of 1John and John 10 and so forth, it's not confusing to me seeing as performance is reflected in one's salvation status. The way you're reading it is in defiance of Rom 4:4,5 "Now when a man works, his wages are not credited to him as a gift, but as an obligation. However, to the man who does not work but trusts God who justifies the wicked, his faith is credited as righteousness."Matthew 25:21 says that it was their faithfulness that is tied to their entering the joy of the Lord and in being rewarded.
Matthew 25:30 says that the unprofitable servant is cast into outer darkness where there is weeping and gnashing of teeth.
Why would the Lord confuse us into thinking we had to be faithful to enter the joy of the Lord if that is not what He meant?
As for the parable of the sheep and goats, notice that the sheep and goats weren't even consciously aware of what they were doing. In other words they simply did what can naturally to them. And that's the reason why he spoke of these two distinct categories of people. They already have in this lifestyle two distinctly different natures. And again that's reflected in the teachings of 1John. Before even evaluating their performance he had already separated them into categories of saved/unsaved. So it wasn't the works which saved them, but rather it was their nature which was reflected in their works. And how do you get the nature of a "sheep", that is "born of God"? Through faith ALONE. "to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God." John 1:12,13 and "Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God" 1John 5:1We learn that in the Parable of the Sheep and Goats, that the sheep are those who helped the poor, etc. in this life, and the goats are those who did not help the poor in this life, etc.
Yes few find it, and therefore the vast majority of Christians (seeing as they make about 1/3 of the population) are not the few that do find it, since it's few and not many who are saved. As I see it well over half the Christian community believes in salvation by works in form or another. Those who believe what I believe are in a small minority among Christians. (I've examined the demographics) Biblical Christianity has never been and cannot reflect Popular Christianity. It's folly to make popularity the measure of truth. But then again it's just as foolish to make unpopularity the measure of truth.Also, Jesus said narrow is the way, and few be there that finds it.
There is a difference between having sins atoned for ... through which we are saved, and thus, making it possible for us to be born into relationship with God ... and having sins forgiven, which enables us to maintain fellowship with God ... within the ongoing relationship.Not when it comes to grievous sin... "no." 1 John 1:9 says if we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins. Belief Alone Proponents believe all future sin is paid for by having a belief in Jesus. Yet, how can one confess of sin and be forgiven of it, if it was already paid for in the future by having a belief alone on Jesus or the Messiah?
I would disagree. "This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother." 1John 3:10I disagree. 1 John is about the condition of false teachers who were disturbing the saved. The letter is a "we" (John and his fellow leaders and believers) and "they" (the false teachers). It was written to encourage believers who were being troubled, not set up a challenge to prove they were believers (the popular take, it seems...for some weird reason people love being under condemnation or the threat of it).
So you're saying that you disagree with John as he says, "No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God." 1John 3:9 And when he says, "They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us. For if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us; but their going showed that none of them belonged to us." 1John 2:19 and when he says, "everyone born of God overcomes the world." 1John 5:5 (so much for your attempt to use the Rev verses to rebut John) Already spoke to your Hebrews verses and so forth.Well, I am not in disagreement that these verses are talking about how faithful believers know the Lord (after they received Him and the gospel), and nor am I in disagreement that these verses are referring to Sanctification (Which comes after Justification). But like most Belief Alone Proponents, they believe that the regeneration changes their nature to such a point that they will live holy and that there is no free will any longer that they cannot fall away into a lifestyle of grievous sin, and or to never want to serve the Lord again. However, this is not consistent with Scripture.
"had to do" - IN ORDER TO BE SAVED? That's your propositions. Gen 15:6 he was given the promise, and in Gen 15:6 Abraham was reckoned righteous for believing the promise, there being no intervening work between Gen 15:5 and Gen 15:6, you're saying that is Abraham died right then he would go to hell because he hadn't performed a work of faith relative to that promise. Remember that when James brought up Abraham's work of faith in Gen 22 it was over a decade later. So you're saying that Abraham's faith was dead from Genesis 15 to Genesis 22.Not so. Abraham believed God and it was accounted to him as righteousness, but he also had to do works of faith like us.
Again we've talked about Romans 2 previously. That from Rom 1:8-Rom 3:20 Paul is talking about justification by the law. Then in Romans 3:21 he transitions into the gospel of grace saying, "But now a righteousness from God, apart from law, has been made known, to which the Law and the Prophets testify. This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus." Rom 3:21-24We are still going to be judged by our works at the judgment according to the New Covenant. This is what Romans 2 is all about. He that sins without the Law shall perish without the Law.
What part of "some false brothers had infiltrated our ranks to spy on the freedom we have in Christ Jesus and to make us slaves." did you not understand?Did you ever consider that these false believers could also believe in Jesus and yet they justified sin?
Always nice to see other believers who have studied His Word enough to SEE the difference of salvation( Believe and be saved Acts 16:31, John 3:16) and fellowship (1 John 1:9.)There is a difference between having sins atoned for ... through which we are saved, and thus, making it possible for us to be born into relationship with God ... and having sins forgiven, which enables us to maintain fellowship with God ... within the ongoing relationship.
I may sin against my wife (perhaps with a careless word), but such does not invalidate our relationship. Confession and a response of forgiveness, however, will do much to restore fellowship ... within our ongoing relationship.
Always nice to see other believers who have studied His Word enough to SEE the difference of salvation( Believe and be saved Acts 16:31, John 3:16) and fellowship (1 John 1:9.)
The workers for can never see the difference. It's either loss of salvation or you were never really saved.
At least the loss of salvation camp is 'in your face' with works for salvation. It's the reformed/calvin camp that is harder to spot.
John 8:47 "He who belongs to God hears what God says. The reason you do not hear is that you do not belong to God." Once again that has nothing to do with conditions for salvation. You have to belong to God to hear. So it's speaking once again of effect rather than the cause for salvation (And by the way it's the same as 1John 4:6)
Mt 16:24-26 In developing saving faith a person must die to the idea of justification by works. You have to be crucified with Christ as Paul said to Peter that we "know that a man is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ. So we, too, have put our faith in Christ Jesus that we may be justified by faith in Christ and not by observing the law, because by observing the law no one will be justified. "If, while we seek to be justified in Christ, it becomes evident that we ourselves are sinners, does that mean that Christ promotes sin? Absolutely not! If I rebuild what I destroyed, I prove that I am a lawbreaker. For through the law I died to the law so that I might live for God. I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. The life I live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me. I do not set aside the grace of God, for if righteousness could be gained through the law, Christ died for nothing!" Gal 2:16-21
Once again you repeat your assumption, that I already spoke to on a number of occasions, that the only reason to obey commands is if you're threatened with eternal condemnation. You can't even conceive of doing the right thing because it's the right thing to do.When you read John 8:47, you have to also read John 8:11 where Jesus says to the woman caught in the act of adultery to "sin no more." If a "belief alone" is all it takes to change a person's behavior in regards to sin, then why is Jesus bothering to tell her to sin no more? It makes no sense.
Why even have commands in the New Testament if we are changed to such a point whereby we will just automatically obey God as a part of having a belief alone?
As for sinless perfection, again I point out that you yourself claim that one can live in sin (according to whatever arbitrary definition you have for so called "non-grevious sins") and be saved. And I've pointed this out many times of which you have not responded to. John 5:14;8:11 use the present tense just as John does in his epistle saying, "No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God." 1John 3:9 and "We know that anyone born of God does not continue to sin" 1John 5:18 So to yet again repeat myself - it just doesn't happen in the case of those born of God.Even you admit that the saint will always sin on occasion (and not as a lifestyle) the rest of their entire lives, and they cannot overcome occasional sinning in this life. But Jesus told two people to "sin no more." (John 5:14) (John 8:11). Yet, if OSAS or Belief Alone-ism was true, Jesus would actually have to say to these two people to, "sin less."
Nope. Mean't 1John 4:6As for your mention of 1 John 4:6:
Well, I am assuming you may have meant 1 John 3:6.
KJV? You might not be aware of this but the New Testament was written in Greek which far precedes KJV. You're reading into KJV the aorist tense, whereas the Greek manuscripts upon which the KJV is based uses the present tense. And then you attempt to butcher what it actually says to fit you presumptions.Explaining 1 John 3:6 and 1 John 3:9:
Modern Translations will say practice sin or continue in sin in 1 John 3:9 (as if to say it is talking exclusively of practicing sin), but this is not the case in the trusted KJV (that existed hundreds of years long before the Modern Translations showed up). (Note: I am not denying that it can be in reference to habitual sin, but it is not exclusively referring to habitual sin but also singular or temporary sin, too.).
The key to understanding 1 John 3:9 is realizing that this "does not commit sin" is in context to the gnostic belief who think sin does not exist or that sin is an illusion in some way (See 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 2:26). Christian Scientists today think sin is an illusion. In other words, it is those who justify sin in some way who have not been born again spiritually and who have never seen or known Christ and He (the seed) does not abide in them. 1 John 3:6 and 1 John 3:9 is talking about "willful sin" in Hebrews 10:26 in view or light of 1 John 1:8.
In other words, 1 John 3:6, and 1 John 3:9 is in view of "willful sin" or "justifying sin" in some way.
1 John 3:9 should read like this:
"Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin [willfully, as if to justify it]; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin [willfully], because he is born of God."
1 John 3:6 should read like this:
"Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not [willfully, seeking to justify their sin]: whosoever sinneth [as if to justify their sin] hath not seen him, neither known him."
And once again 1John 1:7 is not talking about the condition to be saved. It's describing the condition of the saved.Anyways, as for your thinking that John is teaching a condition ONLY of the true believer is false. John said in 1 John 1:7, if we walk in the light, as He (Christ) is in the light, the blood of Jesus Christ cleanses us from all sin..
You've already stated previously that "A person cannot be justified or saved by observing the deeds of the Law alone without first being forgiven by Jesus Christ." Post #142 you simply add a caveat to start off that salvation by works scenario by having one's former sins erase. Then they are ready to work for their salvation.The problem is that you think that Paul was referring to all forms of Law keeping (Including Sanctification) when in reality he was referring to Law Alone Salvationism (that did not include God's grace through faith). Paul was also referring to the Old Law, and he was not referring to Christ's New Covenant teachings. While Jesus was under the Old Covenant when He spoke the words in Mathew 16:24-26, Jesus was not giving us Old Covenant teachings here, but New Covenant teachings. Matthew 16:24-26 is not a part of the Torah. It was something New given to us by Jesus.
Once again you presume that that only motivation for obeying commands is if you do so in order to be saved from hell. That's your presumption. anywhere you see a command you append "in order to be saved". And so you impose a salvation by works soteriology into the text based on your preconceived notions.if you are correct, then Paul should say that even the commands taught by Jesus (like: You shall love God, and love your neighbor) should not be obeyed if they are done for salvation.
Some among the many verses indicating faith as the sole condition for salvation: John 3:16;
You said:John 5:24;
You've already stated previously that "A person cannot be justified or saved by observing the deeds of the Law alone without first being forgiven by Jesus Christ." Post #142 you simply add a caveat to start off that salvation by works scenario by having one's former sins erase. Then they are ready to work for their salvation.
You said:Once again you presume that that only motivation for obeying commands is if you do so in order to be saved from hell. That's your presumption. anywhere you see a command you append "in order to be saved". And so you impose a salvation by works soteriology into the text based on your preconceived notions.