Questions regarding baptism

Albion

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One more thing. Ask someone who says that salvation cannot be completed without water baptism if they would ever share the gospel without also talking about the requirement of water baptism.

Every single time you will get the most emphatic, NO, NEVER, THAT WOULD ONLY BE A PART OF THE GOSPEL. THERE IS NO SALVATION WITHOUT IT!" that you will ever get.
I disagree. It has been posted many times that there can be salvation without baptism, but that doesn't mean we should blow off baptism or treat it as optional, either.

Next I ask, how many times in the N.T. is the gospel shared with no mention of water or baptism ... at all. Turns out that about 90% of the discussions on salvation never mention baptism at all.
How many times, in the New Testament, is someone described as being baptized or talking about being baptized, etc. WITHOUT a mention of water? Few, isn't it.

No, don't trust me. Start reading. You have many passages that just say "Believe on Him who God sent." Some say, "Repent and believe." But the vast majority say nothing about baptism at all. Odd if that is the reality of the gospel.
That's defective reasoning. Or else it might owe to an editing of the Scriptures in the way you referred to the mistake of "WOULD ONLY BE A PART OF THE GOSPEL" before.. An adult who comes to the Lord is expected to indicate somehow that he has had what we call a conversion experience, but that doesn't mean that he is not then going to be baptized. He was to be a believer or else administering baptism to him would be wrong.
 
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TheSeabass

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There is a simple answer, and you know it. Unless Jesus lied, the thief on the cross was with Christ without water baptism.

There is no verse that definitively states that the thief had never been baptized or that he had been baptized. So the "thief argument" against the necessity of water baptism has always been based on biased assumption.....it's a failed argument, always has been.

EmethAlethia said:
Required? No. Jesus does say that, "If you love Me you will keep My commandments.", so the question then becomes, do you love Jesus, or "Do you draw near with your lips while your heart is far away?" "Why do you call Me Lord, Lord, when you do not do as I say." The question is, is someone who refuses to obey a Christian regardless of their professed belief and actions, or do the habit and way of life responses prove what you really do love?

Yet Jesus commanded water baptism. Therefore those not water baptized are showing no love for Christ. Not until one obeys Christ's command to be baptized does one love Christ.

Luke 6:46 Jesus is "Lord" of those who do what he says, and again He commanded baptism Therefore Jesus is Lord of those who have been baptized.

Romans 6:16, therefore NOT being water baptized would be serving "sin unto death" while obeying the Lord's command to be baptized would be serving "obedience unto righteousness".

EmethAlethia said:
Sorry, according to scripture, church membership occurs upon belief, when you are sealed with the Holy Spirit with a view to your future inheritance. That's your church membership in the eyes of God. Like I said, if anyone is looking for more, seek out a group of real Christians who aren't going to add a bunch of additional conditions, restrictions, time constraints ... beyond what scripture commands.

But there is not a single example under Christs' NT of one being in the church, the body of Christ (Colossians 1:18) without being water baptized.

Galatians 3:27 "For as many of you (not any more or any less) as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ."
Baptism is the only means we have been given by God to be in Christ, to put on Christ.

EmethAlethia said:
Commanded? Absolutely. Required to be saved? Nope. Or the thief on the cross would never have made it to heaven. Baptism is an outward profession of the saving faith you already have. Yes, "If you love Me you will keep My commandments." So yes, if you do, you will get baptized

The fact, as you admit, baptism is commanded, the command itself makes water baptism required, a necessity. Again, not obeying the Lord's command is not loving the Lord John 14:15, not obeying the Lord's command to be water baptized is serving sin unto death Romans 6:16. For disobeying the Lord's commands certainly is not serving 'obedience unto righteousness".
 
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Kris Jordan

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Hi Kris,


I can summarize it for you. Salvation as I understand it is a process that begins when one puts their faith in Christ and continues to the point of the resurrection. It requires, what David Bercot calls, an obedient, love, faith relationship with God. It requires that one be baptized for the forgiveness of sins. It requires that one be obedient to the commands of Christ. It requires that one repent of their sins. Baptism is an appeal to God for the forgiveness of our past sins. It's the mechanism by which we enter into the new covenant. Now, there are always those who are going to seek the exception rather than the rule and claim that one can be saved apart from baptism. I'll grant that God can save whoever He chooses to save. He can save an unbeliever if He wants to. However, He has told us under what conditions He will save people and we have no authority to tell people any other way than that which God has stated. He told the apostle to go and make disciples, teaching and baptizing them.


Regarding Romans 3:20-26, if you read that carefully you'll note that nowhere in that passage does it say we are given Christ's righteousness. It says we are declare righteous through faith in Christ. Take note to the passages that you've been given to support different doctrines, quite often you'll find that they don't actually say what is claimed. Rather pastors and theologians have read those ideas into the passage. Also take note that that passage is talking about the "Law". It's the Mosaic Law to be precise. Paul isn't talking about people doing works in general. He's talking about those who insisted that it was necessary to keep the Mosaic Law in addition to faith in Christ. This is the reason I mentioned the importance of studying the historical setting in which the Bible was written.


Regarding the paragraph on the "Modern Church", I would ask you, who decides what is essential? I would also ask you, how is a church Biblically sound if they're teaching erroneous doctrines. You see, you mentioned, "Biblically sound churches" differing on non essentials. That's not what I'm talking about. The modern church differs drastically from the one that was taught by Jesus and the apostles. If today's church is drastically different from the one taught by Jesus and the apostles, how can it be Biblically sound? Many of the major Christian doctrines of today were not held by the church that was taught by Jesus and the apostles. If they weren't held by those who were taught by Jesus and the apostles, then someone made them up along the way. So again, my question would be, how is today's church Biblically sound? What we have to remember is that just because something is orthodox that doesn't mean it's correct, it's just what the majority holds to. Keep in mind that at one time purgatory and praying to the saints were orthodox.


One of the problems I see is that somethings don't seem to change. Christians are still kept in line by fear. They're told not stray outside of the lines or there will be consequences. They may be deemed a heretic. They may be outcasts by those who are orthodox. We can see this kind of thinking all the way back in the 5th century with the Athanasian Creed. It says that anyone who doesn't believe what is written in the Creed cannot be saved. Yet, the Creed contains blatant errors and has strayed from the original faith. This keeps many Christians from challenging the erroneous teaching of the churches.


You're welcome and thank you for taking the time. It's refreshing to see someone who's seriously willing to look at the subject.


Hi Butch5,


Thank you for your thoroughness in answering my question(s). This thread could get really cumbersome if we start debating/discussing every square inch of things and, although I am tempted to go there, I don't feel like it would be productive on this thread since we both have very differing viewpoints - very differing viewpoints - on some of the basics of salvation.


I will respond to a few things though before I start answering the original scripture you offered regarding your belief that baptism is required for salvation.


The first thing I want to say is that you seem to be confusing justification with the process of sanctification. Justification (i.e., salvation) is not a process but an instantaneous event that occurs at the moment of belief. It is not earned by works like baptism and/or obedience. On the other hand, sanctification is both an instantaneous occurrence at the moment of belief and a process of being conformed to the image of Jesus. I have written an article on both if you’d like to read them so you can understand the difference.


The second thing I want to say is that in Romans 3:21-27, Paul is most definitely speaking about the righteousness of God that we receive through faith, apart from the Law. That righteousness is “to all and on all who believe.” I’m not sure how you interpret it any differently since it’s very plain and clear not only in its immediate context but within the historical-grammatical context of the entire book of Romans itself (as well as within the whole of Scripture).


Paul confirms this fact once again in Philippians 3:7-11 when he speaks of himself having a righteousness that is from God by faith, apart from the Law. He writes, “But what things were gain to me, these I have counted loss for Christ. 8 Yet indeed I also count all things loss for the excellence of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord, for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them as rubbish, that I may gain Christ 9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith; 10 that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection, and the fellowship of His sufferings, being conformed to His death, 11 if, by any means, I may attain to the resurrection from the dead.”


The third thing I wanted to say is that your understanding of salvation appears to be works-based and that is in opposition to the myriad of verses that speak to the contrary. You state that salvation begins with faith, but then requires water baptism and obedience to God’s commands in order for it to “take effect,” which occurs at the end of one’s life. Perhaps we should start another thread to address those issues rather than continue discussing them here?


I will now begin addressing the issue of baptism, but I will end this post here and then quote (and respond) to the original post of yours which cited the first verse you offered for me to address so we can keep everything in order and re-traceable.


Blessings!
 
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Kris Jordan

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Sure! we can do that. The passage that is probably the strongest is Mark 16



15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.

16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

(Mk. 16:15-16 KJV)



As I've stated, there is a grammatical argument here that there no way around. "Believes" and "is baptized" are both in the present tense. "shall be saved" is future tense. The present always comes before the future.



You've posted a lot of passages. Can you post one that says a person is saved by faith alone?



Hi Butch5,

Okay, let’s tackle this one...

  • Mark 16:15-16 -- “And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature. 16 He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned. 17 And these signs will follow those who believe: In My name they will cast out demons; they will speak with new tongues; 18 they will take up serpents; and if they drink anything deadly, it will by no means hurt them; they will lay hands on the sick, and they will recover.”
At first glance, Mark 16:16 seems to imply that water baptism is required for salvation. However, when you read the entire verse in context, Jesus makes it vividly clear what condemns a person – and that is “unbelief,” not “unbelief and a failure to be water baptized.” So the second half of that verse clarifies the meaning of Jesus’ words in the first half.

Additionally, verses 17-18 confirm the necessity of “belief only” for salvation as opposed to “belief plus water baptism.” In these verses, Jesus clearly describes the supernatural signs that will follow those who are saved. He is yet again emphasizing the element of belief since “faith” is what imparts salvation to us, not faith plus baptism. If it were so, He would have made that clear in these verses.

Also, it should be noted that if water baptism were a requirement for salvation, God would never have led Paul to write something to the contrary like what is found in I Corinthians 1:17. In this verse, Paul writes, “For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect.” In addition, it is not water baptism that saves, but rather it is the power of the gospel manifested through our belief that saves us, because according to Romans 1:16, Paul writes, "For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ, for it is the power of God to salvation for everyone who believes, for the Jew first and also for the Greek."

Finally, Jesus’ own words in Matthew 28:18-20 also clarify the role of water baptism in the life of a believer. First, people are to become disciples (which happens when they believe, according to Scripture). Then they are to be water baptized (as an act of obedience according to Scripture). Then they are to be taught all the things Jesus commanded (according to Scripture). It’s really that simple.

In conclusion, whenever we find a verse of Scripture that isn’t super clear on the role of baptism, like the one in Mark 16 which “seems to contradict itself” by stating that “belief and baptism” are required for salvation but only “unbelief” condemns us, we have to go to the verses of Scripture that are vividly clear on the role of both. In other words, we have to let Scripture interpret Scripture, since God doesn’t contradict Himself, speak out of both sides of His mouth or lie.
 
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TheSeabass

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You should be able to be baptized as soon as you accept Christ in faith -- that is the only requirement. Churches should not demand you join their church before getting baptized. (They should not have membership at all.)
In what verse under the NT gospel were people told to "accept Christ" and you are saved?
 
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TheSeabass

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He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved;
but he that believeth not shall be damned.


A compound sentence with two subjects, 1) salvation 2) condemnation

Salvation has two requirements: belief and baptism.
condemnation has just one requirement: unbelief.

The requirements for each subject are different and because one subject (condemnation) has just one requirement does not in anyway give the reader a right to remove a requirement from the other subject (salvation) thereby rewriting the verse by changing requirements.

The two requirement for salvation (belief and baptism) are joined by the conjunction 'and' making them (a) inseparable and (b) making both of equal importance and necessity. If one does not have to be baptized to be saved, then one would not have to believe either.

1 and 2 make 3. The "and" ties the 1 to the 2 making them both necessary to have 3. Therefore one cannot remove either the 1 or the 2 for one would no longer have the 3.

He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved;

Jesus gives a logical progression of steps where a step cannot be omitted or skipped. Before one to be saved he must be baptized, before one can be baptized he must first believe. Therefore the logical progression of steps makes it impossible for an unbeliever to be baptized. This means an unbeliever is an unbaptized person therefore when Jesus said "he that believeth not" we know this already excludes being baptized so it would be redundant, unnecessary for Christ to say "he that believeth not and is baptized not due to his unbelief shall be condemned.

a) He that eateth and digesteth his food shall live;
b) he that eateth not shall die.

Two requirements are necessary to live: 1) eateth AND 2) digesteth. A logical progression for one cannot live if he does not digest and one cannot digest what he has not eaten. So we logical know that the person who (b) "eateth not" has not digested for one cannot if he had not eaten.
 
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Butch5

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Hi Butch5,

Okay, let’s tackle this one...

  • Mark 16:15-16 -- “And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature. 16 He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned. 17 And these signs will follow those who believe: In My name they will cast out demons; they will speak with new tongues; 18 they will take up serpents; and if they drink anything deadly, it will by no means hurt them; they will lay hands on the sick, and they will recover.”
At first glance, Mark 16:16 seems to imply that water baptism is required for salvation. However, when you read the entire verse in context, Jesus makes it vividly clear what condemns a person – and that is “unbelief,” not “unbelief and a failure to be water baptized.” So the second half of that verse clarifies the meaning of Jesus’ words in the first half.

Hi Kris,

I've heard this argument quite often. However, it's not valid. Firstly we're discussing what is necessary to be saved, not what is necessary to be condemned. Someone who rejects the Gospel isn't going to be baptized, they've rejected it. So, there's no reason to mention it. However, Jesus states plainly what is necessary to be saved. As I've stated several times, there is no way around this argument. "Believes" and "is baptized" are present tense. "Shall be saved" is future tense. It's grammatically impossible, in time, for "shall be saved" to come before "believes " or "is baptized". It's simply impossible.

Additionally, verses 17-18 confirm the necessity of “belief only” for salvation as opposed to “belief plus water baptism.” In these verses, Jesus clearly describes the supernatural signs that will follow those who are saved. He is yet again emphasizing the element of belief since “faith” is what imparts salvation to us, not faith plus baptism. If it were so, He would have made that clear in these verses.

He said the signs would follow those who believe. He didn't say they would follow those who are saved. The two words have different meanings. Also, to say "He would have made clear" is a fallacy. It's called the argument from silence. That's when you take silence as supporting your position. It doesn't. Silence doesn't support any position. However, He did make it clear, 'he who believes and is baptized shall be saved.'

Also, it should be noted that if water baptism were a requirement for salvation, God would never have led Paul to write something to the contrary like what is found in I Corinthians 1:17. In this verse, Paul writes, “For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect.” In addition, it is not water baptism that saves, but rather it is the power of the gospel manifested through our belief that saves us, because according to Romans 1:16, Paul writes, "For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ, for it is the power of God to salvation for everyone who believes, for the Jew first and also for the Greek."

Are you familiar with the history. There's a reason Paul said he wasn't sent to baptize. The Jews prided themselves on the school of teaching they were taught under. This apparently carried over the Corinthians.

11 For it hath been declared unto me of you, my brethren, by them which are of the house of Chloe, that there are contentions among you.
12 Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ.
13 Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?
14 I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius;
15 Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.
17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. (1 Cor. 1:11-17 KJV)

We can see that they were dividing up based on who baptized them. They were claiming the name of the one who baptized them. Paul chastises them for it and is glad that He didn't baptize them. Then he says that he wasn't sent to baptize but to preach. This in no way indicates that baptism isn't necessary. It simply tells us that Paul wasn't sent for that purpose. Jesus told the apostles to baptize people when making disciples yet Jesus didn't baptize people, He had the disciples do it.


Finally, Jesus’ own words in Matthew 28:18-20 also clarify the role of water baptism in the life of a believer. First, people are to become disciples (which happens when they believe, according to Scripture). Then they are to be water baptized (as an act of obedience according to Scripture). Then they are to be taught all the things Jesus commanded (according to Scripture). It’s really that simple.

But we're not discussing how to make disciples. We're discussing how to saved. Making a disciple is to teach and baptize the one who believes. This passages says nothing about them being saved. I think you're reading that into the text. Also, I'd be interested in the Scripture you refer to that indicates that baptism is an act of obedience

In conclusion, whenever we find a verse of Scripture that isn’t super clear on the role of baptism, like the one in Mark 16 which “seems to contradict itself” by stating that “belief and baptism” are required for salvation but only “unbelief” condemns us, we have to go to the verses of Scripture that are vividly clear on the role of both. In other words, we have to let Scripture interpret Scripture, since God doesn’t contradict Himself, speak out of both sides of His mouth or lie.

But Mark 16 is crystal clear on the role of baptism. It doesn't seem to contradict itself. It's that the argument you're using is fallacious. It's also an argument from silence. If I said, to go to the store you need to have an engine and gas in your car, but if you don't have an engine you can't go. If you don't have an engine the gas is irrelevant. Likewise, if you don't believe, baptism is irrelevant.

Also, the phrase, "we have to let Scripture interpret Scripture", is a logical fallacy. It's called the fallacy of Reification. The Scriptures are words. They cannot interpret anything. It takes a mind to interpret something. The phrase is just cover for someone using their understanding of one passage to interpret another.
 
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Butch5

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Hi Butch5,


Thank you for your thoroughness in answering my question(s). This thread could get really cumbersome if we start debating/discussing every square inch of things and, although I am tempted to go there, I don't feel like it would be productive on this thread since we both have very differing viewpoints - very differing viewpoints - on some of the basics of salvation.


I will respond to a few things though before I start answering the original scripture you offered regarding your belief that baptism is required for salvation.


The first thing I want to say is that you seem to be confusing justification with the process of sanctification. Justification (i.e., salvation) is not a process but an instantaneous event that occurs at the moment of belief. It is not earned by works like baptism and/or obedience. On the other hand, sanctification is both an instantaneous occurrence at the moment of belief and a process of being conformed to the image of Jesus. I have written an article on both if you’d like to read them so you can understand the difference.

If you'd like we can start a new thread. You're welcome to post a link to the article if you'd like. I will say that I'm not confused with either. It seems you're conflating justification and salvation, they are not the same thing. You said that Justification occurs at the moment one believes, yet you won't find that in Scripture. On the contrary we see that when Abraham believed, he had already also obeyed. We also know that James tells us plainly that a man is not justified by faith alone and that Abraham's works worked with his faith and that by his works his faith was made complete. He asks rhetorically, was not Abraham and Rahab justified by works?

Sanctification on the other hand simply means, to be set apart. It's something that is set apart from common use. If you read about the utensils used in the Tabernacle and the Temple you'll see that they were only to be used for that purpose and nothing else. They were sanctified. Regarding your statement about sanctification referring to being conformed to the image of Christ, I don't think you'll find that in Scripture.


The second thing I want to say is that in Romans 3:21-27, Paul is most definitely speaking about the righteousness of God that we receive through faith, apart from the Law. That righteousness is “to all and on all who believe.” I’m not sure how you interpret it any differently since it’s very plain and clear not only in its immediate context but within the historical-grammatical context of the entire book of Romans itself (as well as within the whole of Scripture).


Paul confirms this fact once again in Philippians 3:7-11 when he speaks of himself having a righteousness that is from God by faith, apart from the Law. He writes, “But what things were gain to me, these I have counted loss for Christ. 8 Yet indeed I also count all things loss for the excellence of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord, for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them as rubbish, that I may gain Christ 9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith; 10 that I may know Him and the power of His resurrection, and the fellowship of His sufferings, being conformed to His death, 11 if, by any means, I may attain to the resurrection from the dead.”

Yes, the righteousness which is from God. He doesn't say Christ's righteousness was given to him.

The third thing I wanted to say is that your understanding of salvation appears to be works-based and that is in opposition to the myriad of verses that speak to the contrary. You state that salvation begins with faith, but then requires water baptism and obedience to God’s commands in order for it to “take effect,” which occurs at the end of one’s life. Perhaps we should start another thread to address those issues rather than continue discussing them here?


I will now begin addressing the issue of baptism, but I will end this post here and then quote (and respond) to the original post of yours which cited the first verse you offered for me to address so we can keep everything in order and re-traceable.


Blessings!

We can start another thread if you'd like. My view of salvation is faith based, but not faith alone. There is nothing in the Scriptures that says one is saved by faith alone. If you look at the myriad of verses you mentioned above, you won't find a single one that says one is saved by faith alone. The argument that a passage talks about faith but doesn't mention baptism therefore baptism isn't necessary, is the fallacy I mentioned in the other post. It's the Argument from Silence. As I've pointed out, there are passages that mention being saved by baptism that don't mention faith. There is Hebrews 5:9 that speaks of salvation being for those who are obedient, again, no mention of faith. If the argument can be made that a passage that mentions faith and nothing else proves that nothing else is needed, then the same argument could be made of a passage that mentions baptism and nothing else proving that baptism alone saves. Or the same argument could be made for obedience. This proves that the argument is wrong.
 
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Kris Jordan

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Hi Kris,

I've heard this argument quite often. However, it's not valid. Firstly we're discussing what is necessary to be saved, not what is necessary to be condemned. Someone who rejects the Gospel isn't going to be baptized, they've rejected it. So, there's no reason to mention it. However, Jesus states plainly what is necessary to be saved. As I've stated several times, there is no way around this argument. "Believes" and "is baptized" are present tense. "Shall be saved" is future tense. It's grammatically impossible, in time, for "shall be saved" to come before "believes " or "is baptized". It's simply impossible.



He said the signs would follow those who believe. He didn't say they would follow those who are saved. The two words have different meanings. Also, to say "He would have made clear" is a fallacy. It's called the argument from silence. That's when you take silence as supporting your position. It doesn't. Silence doesn't support any position. However, He did make it clear, 'he who believes and is baptized shall be saved.'



Are you familiar with the history. There's a reason Paul said he wasn't sent to baptize. The Jews prided themselves on the school of teaching they were taught under. This apparently carried over the Corinthians.

11 For it hath been declared unto me of you, my brethren, by them which are of the house of Chloe, that there are contentions among you.
12 Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ.
13 Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?
14 I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius;
15 Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.
17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect. (1 Cor. 1:11-17 KJV)

We can see that they were dividing up based on who baptized them. They were claiming the name of the one who baptized them. Paul chastises them for it and is glad that He didn't baptize them. Then he says that he wasn't sent to baptize but to preach. This in no way indicates that baptism isn't necessary. It simply tells us that Paul wasn't sent for that purpose. Jesus told the apostles to baptize people when making disciples yet Jesus didn't baptize people, He had the disciples do it.




But we're not discussing how to make disciples. We're discussing how to saved. Making a disciple is to teach and baptize the one who believes. This passages says nothing about them being saved. I think you're reading that into the text. Also, I'd be interested in the Scripture you refer to that indicates that baptism is an act of obedience



But Mark 16 is crystal clear on the role of baptism. It doesn't seem to contradict itself. It's that the argument you're using is fallacious. It's also an argument from silence. If I said, to go to the store you need to have an engine and gas in your car, but if you don't have an engine you can't go. If you don't have an engine the gas is irrelevant. Likewise, if you don't believe, baptism is irrelevant.

Also, the phrase, "we have to let Scripture interpret Scripture", is a logical fallacy. It's called the fallacy of Reification. The Scriptures are words. They cannot interpret anything. It takes a mind to interpret something. The phrase is just cover for someone using their understanding of one passage to interpret another.

Hi Butch5,

Sorry it's taken me so long to get back to you. I've been away from my computer a lot lately.

Faith Alone vs. Faith Plus Baptism:
With regard to your response, we could not disagree any more than we possibly do scripturally on this subject (shocker - lol!) My rebuttal points, which you view as an "argument of silence" are actually an argument of what is simply and clearly stated overall, in light of all scriptures on the subject of what constitutes salvation and what does not.

In other words, if one verse of scripture (in which God cannot lie) states that one is saved by belief and baptism, yet is condemned by unbelief, (which leaves room for varying interpretations and/or understandings, since what qualifies as 'condemning a person' does not clearly include a failure to be baptized along with unbelief like it did in the first part of the verse), but then dozens of other verses which are absolutely crystal clear and undeniable in their plain, simple meaning of the text and do not leave room for varying interpretations and/or understandings when it comes to salvation being through faith/belief, then we have to interpret the not-so-crystal-clear-ones in light of the crystal-clear-ones to gain a proper understanding of that biblical truth.

It's like this: If I make a statement like, "my shirt is red," and I do not have the ability or capacity to lie, then that has to mean that my shirt is red - as in, "red...all red...only red." It could never mean "my shirt is red with other colors also," because that would be a lie or a half-truth at best. So if my shirt was actually red with blue and green, and I do not have the ability or capacity to lie about it, then my 100% truthful, honest, actual statement would need to be, "My shirt is red with other colors too," or something to that effect, to let the hearer understand the truth of what color my shirt really was.

The same thing goes with entrance into Disneyland. If their website stated, "entrance into Disneyland requires the purchase of a $90 ticket," then one would expect to get into Disneyland with the purchase of that ticket - and only that ticket - if we take that statement at face value. If in reality, entrance into Disneyland required the purchase of a $90 ticket plus three $10 meal vouchers in order to actually get into Disneyland, then that would be a misleading, dishonest and untrue statement. However, if their website stated, "entrance into Disneyland requires the purchase of a $90 ticket and three $10 meal vouchers, but denial into the Park will occur if you do not purchase a $90 ticket," then that statement is confusing as to what really constitutes entrance into the Park, since it could mean it required the $90 ticket AND the vouchers or just the main ticket itself. So one would need to read elsewhere on their website (most likely the fine print) to get clarity on what the actual requirement is.

When it comes to something as important as what actually saves a person, and God tells us in His inspired word (which does not lie nor contradict itself) that, "For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast."(Ephesians 2:8-9), then that is a crystal clear verse. It says we are saved by God's grace through faith - not faith plus baptism, not faith plus standing on our heads, not faith plus fasting three times a week, but faith and faith alone. This verse does not require the addition of the word "only" in order to understand the clear meaning and intention of it. It's the same thing as saying "my shirt is red." Someone wouldn't read that statement and conclude, "oh, there's red in her shirt but not only red." That would be ludicrous.

So to reject salvation and forgiveness is by faith and faith alone just because the word "alone" doesn't appear in multiple verses on the subject is illogical. That is the epitome of the "argument of silence." Yet there are multiple verses which clearly state what saves us, forgives us, justifies us, or however you want to describe salvation, that identifies "belief" as the "only requirement" necessary.

Paul Not Sent To Baptize:
Next, when you commented on 1 Corinthians 1:11-17, you left out verse 18 and completely missed the point Paul was making. It's all found in verses 17-18 -- "For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect. 18 For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God."

His whole point was not about water baptism or who-follows-who like these people were all caught up with. It was about the power of the gospel that saves us and unites us in our faith, not who baptized us, etc. It is the message of the cross (Jesus' death, burial, resurrection) and belief if what Jesus did on it, that saves us. Hence, Paul was not there to water baptize (which does nothing to save us) but to preach the gospel of Jesus Christ, because that message, the message of the cross, is the power of God to save. Not baptism.


Baptism Is An Act Of Obedience After Salvation:
Next, you asked for scriptures which demonstrate that water baptism is an act of obedience AFTER salvation and not a means for OBTAINING salvation.

The first one is in Acts 10:47-48, where Peter said: “'Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?” And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days.'" In this verse, salvation occurred when they believed Peter's words (vs. 34-43) prior to them being water baptized, which was evidenced by them receiving the Holy Spirit just like the Apostles did themselves. Then water baptism followed their belief and salvation in obedience to God's command, not as a means to "complete" the salvation transaction.

Another verse is found in Acts 16:29-34, "And he called for lights and rushed in, and trembling with fear he fell down before Paul and Silas, and after he brought them out, he said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” They said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.” And they spoke the word of the Lord to him together with all who were in his house. And he took them that very hour of the night and washed their wounds, and immediately he was baptized, he and all his household. And he brought them into his house and set food before them, and rejoiced greatly, having believed in God with his whole household." In this verse, this jailer was told he must believe in the Lord Jesus to be saved. Obviously, Paul and Silas were not deceiving him about what was required for him to be saved by omitting the "requirement" of water baptism if that was actually necessary for obtaining salvation. The Bible says the jailer and his whole household believed (and obviously were saved as a result), and rejoiced greatly over their salvation through their belief, as verse 34 states.
 
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Butch5

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Hi Butch5,

Sorry it's taken me so long to get back to you. I've been away from my computer a lot lately.

No problem, take your time.

Faith Alone vs. Faith Plus Baptism:
With regard to your response, we could not disagree any more than we possibly do scripturally on this subject (shocker - lol!) My rebuttal points, which you view as an "argument of silence" are actually an argument of what is simply and clearly stated overall, in light of all scriptures on the subject of what constitutes salvation and what does not.

In other words, if one verse of scripture (in which God cannot lie) states that one is saved by belief and baptism, yet is condemned by unbelief, (which leaves room for varying interpretations and/or understandings, since what qualifies as 'condemning a person' does not clearly include a failure to be baptized along with unbelief like it did in the first part of the verse), but then dozens of other verses which are absolutely crystal clear and undeniable in their plain, simple meaning of the text and do not leave room for varying interpretations and/or understandings when it comes to salvation being through faith/belief, then we have to interpret the not-so-crystal-clear-ones in light of the crystal-clear-ones to gain a proper understanding of that biblical truth.

I would emphasize again that the passage in Mark 16 is crystal clear. They were told to go and preach the Gospel. He who believes and is baptized shall be saved. There's nothing ambiguous here. Bringing in what condemns only attempts to muddy the waters. It has no bearing on what saves.

Regarding the passages that you say are crystal clear, they have to be understood in the context in which they were written. Paul wasn't writing to you or me. He was writing to churches that were dealing with specific issues. His letters address those issues. We don't know what questions they asked Paul. This is why understanding the historical setting and the geopolitical situation are so crucial. Too many read these letters in a vacuum and just interpret them however they see fit. If we know what was going on in these churches, it goes a long way to understanding what Paul is addressing in his letters.

I said your argument was an argument from silence because that's what you're essentially claiming. You say that because baptism isn't mentioned in what condemns it's not necessary for what saves. However, in doing this you're taking it upon yourself to tell Jesus what He should have said. If He meant that, then He should have said it this way. However, we're supposed to figure out what the author means, not adapt the author to what we want. Your argument is from silence because it argues that if Jesus meant that baptism saves then He should have said that not being baptized condemns. So, you argument is actually based on what Jesus didn't say. That makes it an argument from silence. This is a logical fallacy and it's not valid.

It's like this: If I make a statement like, "my shirt is red," and I do not have the ability or capacity to lie, then that has to mean that my shirt is red - as in, "red...all red...only red." It could never mean "my shirt is red with other colors also," because that would be a lie or a half-truth at best. So if my shirt was actually red with blue and green, and I do not have the ability or capacity to lie about it, then my 100% truthful, honest, actual statement would need to be, "My shirt is red with other colors too," or something to that effect, to let the hearer understand the truth of what color my shirt really was.

I think you're making an extreme example here. If you're red shirt had your name embroidered on it in white would it be a lie to say it is a red shirt. A red shirt doesn't have to exclude all colors. If that were the case everyone would be lying about the color of their shirt as shirts have tags which have different colors.

The same thing goes with entrance into Disneyland. If their website stated, "entrance into Disneyland requires the purchase of a $90 ticket," then one would expect to get into Disneyland with the purchase of that ticket - and only that ticket - if we take that statement at face value. If in reality, entrance into Disneyland required the purchase of a $90 ticket plus three $10 meal vouchers in order to actually get into Disneyland, then that would be a misleading, dishonest and untrue statement. However, if their website stated, "entrance into Disneyland requires the purchase of a $90 ticket and three $10 meal vouchers, but denial into the Park will occur if you do not purchase a $90 ticket," then that statement is confusing as to what really constitutes entrance into the Park, since it could mean it required the $90 ticket AND the vouchers or just the main ticket itself. So one would need to read elsewhere on their website (most likely the fine print) to get clarity on what the actual requirement is.

It wouldn't be confusing at all. One would simply understand that the ticket alone isn't enough. However, without the ticket one isn't getting in. That's pretty simple.

But, let's suppose that the website only states that you need the $90 ticket to get in. Now, let's suppose that you buy that ticket online and you print it out. You now have the ticket to get into Disneyland. Here's my question. Do you have to actually go to Disneyland to get in? After all, they didn't say on the website that you had to go there, they just said you had to buy the $90 ticket. Sounds like a silly question, right? Everyone knows you have to actually go there. They really don't have to mention that on the website because everyone knows it. Well, the Gospel that was preached was, repent and be baptized for the remission of your sins and you will be saved. That's the Gospel. Baptism was part of the preaching of the Gospel, so they knew it was part of believing the Gospel. Paul didn't have to repeat this to the churches he wrote to, they already knew it. Just like everyone knows that if you want to get into Disneyland you need the $90 ticket and you also need to go there.

When it comes to something as important as what actually saves a person, and God tells us in His inspired word (which does not lie nor contradict itself) that, "For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast."(Ephesians 2:8-9), then that is a crystal clear verse. It says we are saved by God's grace through faith - not faith plus baptism, not faith plus standing on our heads, not faith plus fasting three times a week, but faith and faith alone. This verse does not require the addition of the word "only" in order to understand the clear meaning and intention of it. It's the same thing as saying "my shirt is red." Someone wouldn't read that statement and conclude, "oh, there's red in her shirt but not only red." That would be ludicrous.

This brings me back to my statement about the historical setting. Do you know what Paul was dealing with in this letter? Do you know why he said they were saved by faith and not works? He was addressing a teaching that was being claimed by some of the Jewish believers coming from Jerusalem, they were known as the Judaizers. They were going behind Paul and telling his converts that in addition to faith in Christ they also needed to be circumcised and keep the Law of Moses. This was actually a big issue in Paul's ministry. So much so that he was inspired by the Holy Spirit to go to Jerusalem and meet with the other apostles. So, on one had you had these Judaizers telling the Ephesians they needed to have faith and keep the Law of Moses (works) and on the other was Paul saying no, you are saved by faith, not works (Law of Moses). In this discussion there is no mention of baptism whatsoever. So there is no reason for Paul to mention baptism. The argument is whether or not one must keep the Law of Moses (works)

You're also committing the "what's good for the goose is good for the gander" fallacy. Regarding Ephesians to 2:8 you said, " This verse does not require the addition of the word "only" in order to understand the clear meaning and intention of it." Yet when I say the same thing about the second part of Mark 16:16 you claim the opposite. You claim that the word "only" isn't needed to make Ephesians 2:8 clear. But you argue that "baptism" is necessary to make Mark 16:16 clear. You can't have it both ways.

One more point is that, yes, you do need a passage that says faith alone. If one is going to claim that one is saved by faith alone, then they need to show from Scripture that it is stated. If it's not stated, then it's an inference. Inferences can be wrong.



So to reject salvation and forgiveness is by faith and faith alone just because the word "alone" doesn't appear in multiple verses on the subject is illogical. That is the epitome of the "argument of silence." Yet there are multiple verses which clearly state what saves us, forgives us, justifies us, or however you want to describe salvation, that identifies "belief" as the "only requirement" necessary.

It would be an argument from silence if we didn't have passages that state otherwise. But, we do. So, it's not an argument from silence. The Scriptures aren't silent on the issue. We have Heb 5:9 that says of Christ, 'He became eternal salvation to those who obey'. We have Peter's words, 'Baptism does now save us.' We have Paul's words to Titus, 'He saved us through the bath of regeneration and the renewing of the spirit'. All of these are said to save.

I've mentioned this before, but it bears repeating. These passages show that the argument you're using is invalid. Your argument is that certain passages of Scripture only mention belief as what saves. However, these passages I listed mention that baptism saves, or renewing of the Spirit, or that obedience leads to eternal salvation. None of these passages mention faith. By your argument one could argue that faith isn't necessary because it's not mentioned in these passages. This shows that this line of argumentation that you're using isn't valid. It's flawed.

Paul Not Sent To Baptize:
Next, when you commented on 1 Corinthians 1:11-17, you left out verse 18 and completely missed the point Paul was making. It's all found in verses 17-18 -- "For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect. 18 For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God."

His whole point was not about water baptism or who-follows-who like these people were all caught up with. It was about the power of the gospel that saves us and unites us in our faith, not who baptized us, etc. It is the message of the cross (Jesus' death, burial, resurrection) and belief if what Jesus did on it, that saves us. Hence, Paul was not there to water baptize (which does nothing to save us) but to preach the gospel of Jesus Christ, because that message, the message of the cross, is the power of God to save. Not baptism.

This was your passage, not mine. The point I was making is that it doesn't prove that baptism isn't necessary for salvation.


Baptism Is An Act Of Obedience After Salvation:
Next, you asked for scriptures which demonstrate that water baptism is an act of obedience AFTER salvation and not a means for OBTAINING salvation.

The first one is in Acts 10:47-48, where Peter said: “'Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?” And he ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked him to stay on for a few days.'" In this verse, salvation occurred when they believed Peter's words (vs. 34-43) prior to them being water baptized, which was evidenced by them receiving the Holy Spirit just like the Apostles did themselves. Then water baptism followed their belief and salvation in obedience to God's command, not as a means to "complete" the salvation transaction.

You're assuming that they were saved when they believed, yet the Scripture doesn't say that. However, this passage says nothing about an act of obedience. We know what baptism is for, Peter told us.

38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. (Acts 2:38 KJV)

Another verse is found in Acts 16:29-34, "And he called for lights and rushed in, and trembling with fear he fell down before Paul and Silas, and after he brought them out, he said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” They said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.” And they spoke the word of the Lord to him together with all who were in his house. And he took them that veryhour of the night and washed their wounds, and immediately he was baptized, he and all his household. And he brought them into his house and set food before them, and rejoiced greatly, having believed in God with his whole household." In this verse, this jailer was told he must believe in the Lord Jesus to be saved. Obviously, Paul and Silas were not deceiving him about what was required for him to be saved by omitting the "requirement" of water baptism if that was actually necessary for obtaining salvation. The Bible says the jailer and his whole household believed (and obviously were saved as a result), and rejoiced greatly over their salvation through their belief, as verse 34 states.

And the passage goes on to explain what 'believe in the Lord Jesus' means. The passage says they spoke the word of the Lord to him and his household and immediately they were baptized. This clearly shows that believing in the Lord includes baptism. This is the same thing we saw with Peter at Cornelius' house. They believed Peter's words and were baptized. The passages don't say they were saved when they believed. That's just your belief. You even say above, "and obviously were saved as a result." But the passages don't say that.

One thing we need to keep in mind is that Luke didn't record every single word that was spoken. He's giving the pertinent details, to his readers, of the event. Note that Luke doesn't tell us what Paul and Silas said to the Jailer and his household. He just gives us a condensed version calling it the word of the Lord. He didn't record word for word what was said. In both of these events people who want to be saved and after asking, are given the word of the Lord and are baptized. It should be obvious that the word of Lord contains baptism. But neither passage says that they were saved the moment they believed.

I point out the fallacies to show that the reasoning isn't valid. If an argument isn't valid, it's a bad argument. It should be rejected.
 
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Kris Jordan

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I think you're making an extreme example here. If you're red shirt had your name embroidered on it in white would it be a lie to say it is a red shirt. A red shirt doesn't have to exclude all colors. If that were the case everyone would be lying about the color of their shirt as shirts have tags which have different colors.


Hi Butch5,

I can see now where the root problem lies in all this. You are taking several verses on the subject of what actually saves us -- (which are as clear and exact in their meaning and intention as the statement “my shirt is red” is clear and exact in its meaning and intention) – and you are interpreting them to mean something other than what they clearly and emphatically state.

In other words, if I am writing a factual statement to someone about what color my shirt is -- (not the color of the interior label or the stitching around the edges of the shirt, but just the color of the shirt itself) -- and I write, “my shirt is red,” then that statement means exactly what it says. It means that my shirt is red, only red and no other colors are present on my shirt color other than the color red. There is no middle ground or grey area present in this quoted statement. Therefore, in order for someone to understand the clear and exact meaning of my statement within the context of my shirt’s color, I only need to write, “my shirt is red.” I don’t have to write “my shirt is only red” or “my shirt is red and red alone” or “my shirt doesn’t contain any other colors but red” in order for them to understand the plain and simple meaning of the actual color of my shirt.

Similarly, when verses such as Ephesians 2:8-9 or Romans 5:1-2 or Romans 3:28-30 state clearly and unequivocally (within their historical context and the overall context of Scripture as a whole) that the gift of salvation is given to us by/through faith, and we are justified by God through faith, and the access into God’s grace is through faith (not faith plus anything else), you claim those simple-to-understand verses don’t really mean what they state. This is an undermining of God’s word that started all the way back in the garden when Satan said to Eve, “Did God really say...?”

I have seen this same faulty methodology used by many who claim that baptism (or other works) is required for salvation. They claim that when a verse says salvation is by faith, or we are justified by faith, or we are saved when we believe, it doesn’t really mean what it says because it doesn’t include the word “only” or “alone.” Therefore, they conclude that those verses are open-ended and leave room for other things to be included or required – however, that is where the problem enters in. It goes back to the “my shirt is red” example. These verses of Scripture are not open-ended but are stating a clear fact on the subject of what actually saves us. Anything else not included in those statements doesn’t qualify as a means to our salvation, period.

Now regarding some of the verses you mentioned in your argument to prove that other things are required for salvation aside from faith only...

You used Hebrews 5:9 as a proof-text to show that “works of obedience” are required for salvation, however that is false. This verse does not state that whatsoever. The focus of this verse is Jesus and it simply declares that He, having suffered (and died), became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him. From elsewhere in Scripture, who are those who obey Him? The gospel of John says that those who love Jesus will obey Him -- Jesus tells us that Himself. (We also know from the gospel of John that we love Him because He first loved us and gave Himself up for us). James also talks about good works/obedience being the natural byproduct of genuine saving faith. He says that you can’t have genuine saving faith without any good works to show for it, because the type of genuine faith that actually brings salvation – whereby God changes our hearts and makes us a new creation through the indwelling Holy Spirit within us – can’t help but do good works in response to that internal, eternal change. It’s like a man who says he loves his wife. If he truly does, his love will naturally produce outward actions toward her that reflect the reality within his heart. If he doesn’t, then he won’t. So reading into Hebrews 5:9 to say that this verse proves obedience is required in order to be saved is false and says nothing of the sort.

You also used 1 Peter 3:21 as evidence that water baptism saves us but this is also a misunderstanding and misinterpretation of that verse. Peter is not speaking of the literal water of baptism here, but the spiritual baptism that takes place when we believe, as stated in the rest of that verse which speaks of a pledge of a good conscience toward God through the resurrection of Jesus Christ. Therefore it is His death, burial and resurrection that saves us when we believe, not the water that removes dirt from the body. This correct interpretation is in complete agreement with all other direct and clear verses on the subject of what actually saves us, which is faith and only faith.

Additionally, your claim that Titus 3:5 is a proof-text that water baptism saves because of the phrase “the water of regeneration” is also a complete misreading and misinterpretation of that phrase and entire verse. Read it in its entirety. It clearly states, “But when the kindness and the love of God our Savior toward man appeared, 5 not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 that having been justified by His grace we should become heirs according to the hope of eternal life.” This verse is not referring to water baptism whatsoever but instead speaks of the regeneration (i.e., salvation) that occurs when He washed us (i.e., regenerated/cleansed us from our sin) and renewed us through the Holy Spirit when we believed (see verse 7) -- so I don’t know how you can read that verse in its context and conclude that the “washing” it speaks of is literal water baptism. It clearly is not.

Finally, you wrote, “yes, you do need a passage that says ‘faith alone.’ If one is going to claim that one is saved by faith alone, then they need to show from Scripture that it is stated.”

This goes back to my first point where I said a statement as clear and exact as “my shirt is red” doesn’t need to include the word “only” or “alone” to convey the intended and plain meaning of the statement -- which is that my shirt is red, only red and has no other colors present on the shirt.

The same type of clear and exact verses on the subject of what saves us are found below and do not require the addition of the word “only” or “alone” to be understood. These verses speak directly to what actually saves us, and they speak directly to the vehicle or means by which we are saved. They are straight-shooting, specific and unequivocally clear in their plain and intended meaning. I really encourage you to re-read these verses, asking the Lord to show you His truth on this very specific subject and then answer the questions that follow each one below. I did not include all of the verses, but just a few to start:

Ephesians 2:8-9 – For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast.

Question: What is the means by which Paul tells us we are saved?


Romans 5:1-2 – Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom also we have access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.

Question: What gives us actual peace with God? What element allows us access into God’s grace?


John 1:12-13 -- But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name: who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

Question: What is the means that gives us the right to be children of God? What actually causes us to be born of God?


Romans 3:28-30 -- Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law. Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also, since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith.

Question: What justifies someone before God? What is the means God will use to justify us before Himself?


Philippians 3:8b-9 -- ...so that I may gain Christ, and may be found in Him, not having a righteousness of my own derived from the Law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which comes from God on the basis of faith;

Question: What is the means by which we attain God’s righteousness for ourselves?
 
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Butch5

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Hi Butch5,
I can see now where the root problem lies in all this. You are taking several verses on the subject of what actually saves us -- (which are as clear and exact in their meaning and intention as the statement “my shirt is red” is clear and exact in its meaning and intention) – and you are interpreting them to mean something other than what they clearly and emphatically state.

No Kris, I'm interpreting them in their historical context. This is how to understand what the Scriptures actually say. The Bible isn't a book full of one liners. Every verse is connected to the book in which it appears. Each of those books was written to a group of people who were living in a historical setting. Paul's letters were written to Christians who already knew what was necessary to be saved. He didn't have to make a list of everything necessary because they already knew it.

In other words, if I am writing a factual statement to someone about what color my shirt is -- (not the color of the interior label or the stitching around the edges of the shirt, but just the color of the shirt itself) -- and I write, “my shirt is red,” then that statement means exactly what it says. It means that my shirt is red, only red and no other colors are present on my shirt color other than the color red. There is no middle ground or grey area present in this quoted statement. Therefore, in order for someone to understand the clear and exact meaning of my statement within the context of my shirt’s color, I only need to write, “my shirt is red.” I don’t have to write “my shirt is only red” or “my shirt is red and red alone” or “my shirt doesn’t contain any other colors but red” in order for them to understand the plain and simple meaning of the actual color of my shirt.

Now you're moving the goal posts. Are the label and the stitching part of the shirt? They are. Thus your shirt isn't completely read. I've pointed out several fallacies in your arguments and you've not addressed them. Here you've used the "No True Scotsman" fallacy. When you say you're shirt is red, you simply discard the parts that aren't read. This is the same thing you're doing with baptism. You simple discard what you don't want.

Similarly, when verses such as Ephesians 2:8-9 or Romans 5:1-2 or Romans 3:28-30 state clearly and unequivocally (within their historical context and the overall context of Scripture as a whole) that the gift of salvation is given to us by/through faith, and we are justified by God through faith, and the access into God’s grace is through faith (not faith plus anything else), you claim those simple-to-understand verses don’t really mean what they state. This is an undermining of God’s word that started all the way back in the garden when Satan said to Eve, “Did God really say...?”

It's interesting that you mention the historical context and overall context and then just dismiss it. Ephesians 2:8 is specifically talking about the works of the Mosaic Law. Your use of this passage completely ignores the historical and overall context of the passage. The same can be said of the Romans passages you mentioned. They are explicitly dealing with whether one is justified by faith or the Mosaic Law. So again, you've ignored the historical and overall context.

In each of these passages Paul is discussing whether one in saved/justified by faith or the Mosaic Law. These passages have absolutely nothing to do with baptism. The subject never comes up.

I've pointed out several times now that this argument is a fallacy. It's an argument from silence. There is a flaw in this line of reasoning.

I have seen this same faulty methodology used by many who claim that baptism (or other works) is required for salvation. They claim that when a verse says salvation is by faith, or we are justified by faith, or we are saved when we believe, it doesn’t really mean what it says because it doesn’t include the word “only” or “alone.” Therefore, they conclude that those verses are open-ended and leave room for other things to be included or required – however, that is where the problem enters in. It goes back to the “my shirt is red” example. These verses of Scripture are not open-ended but are stating a clear fact on the subject of what actually saves us. Anything else not included in those statements doesn’t qualify as a means to our salvation, period.

It's not faulty. It's your line of reasoning that is faulty as I've pointed out by showing the fallacies. If you can believe you can show any fallacy in what I've posted feel free. It's not there.

The words do mean what they say. They just don't mean what you say. You're imposing your belief onto the text and using an argument from silence to claim that your interpretation is correct. However, as I've pointed out, the argument from silence is a fallacy.

The passages say what saves, however, they don't say that that is all that saves and they don't give a list of what saves. You might have been able to make an argument from silence if it wasn't for the fact that we have other passages that state that other things save.

Now regarding some of the verses you mentioned in your argument to prove that other things are required for salvation aside from faith only...

You used Hebrews 5:9 as a proof-text to show that “works of obedience” are required for salvation, however that is false. This verse does not state that whatsoever. The focus of this verse is Jesus and it simply declares that He, having suffered (and died), became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him. From elsewhere in Scripture, who are those who obey Him? The gospel of John says that those who love Jesus will obey Him -- Jesus tells us that Himself. (We also know from the gospel of John that we love Him because He first loved us and gave Himself up for us). James also talks about good works/obedience being the natural byproduct of genuine saving faith. He says that you can’t have genuine saving faith without any good works to show for it, because the type of genuine faith that actually brings salvation – whereby God changes our hearts and makes us a new creation through the indwelling Holy Spirit within us – can’t help but do good works in response to that internal, eternal change. It’s like a man who says he loves his wife. If he truly does, his love will naturally produce outward actions toward her that reflect the reality within his heart. If he doesn’t, then he won’t. So reading into Hebrews 5:9 to say that this verse proves obedience is required in order to be saved is false and says nothing of the sort.

Your argument doesn't address the issue. whatever the reason one obeys doesn't change the fact that Christ became eternal salvation to those who obey. If one doesn't obey, He isn't salvation for them. The obedience is a must. Thus it is necessary for salvation.


It's interesting that you mention James. He states plainly that a man isn't justified by faith alone. He said that Abraham was justified by his works. We know that in order to be saved one must be justified. If one isn't justified one isn't saved. Abraham was justified by his works, thus his works were necessary for his salvation. This is really clear.


You also used 1 Peter 3:21 as evidence that water baptism saves us but this is also a misunderstanding and misinterpretation of that verse. Peter is not speaking of the literal water of baptism here, but the spiritual baptism that takes place when we believe, as stated in the rest of that verse which speaks of a pledge of a good conscience toward God through the resurrection of Jesus Christ. Therefore it is His death, burial and resurrection that saves us when we believe, not the water that removes dirt from the body. This correct interpretation is in complete agreement with all other direct and clear verses on the subject of what actually saves us, which is faith and only faith.


No offense Kris but this is nonsense. Are you really suggesting that Noah didn't go through literal water in the flood?

20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: (1 Pet. 3:20-21 KJV)

I think you're just trying to get around what it plainly says. Eight souls were saved through water. The like figure whereunto baptism does now save us. Noah didn't go through a spiritual baptism in the ark. He went through water just like peter said. It seems you're trying to allegorize the passage away.


Additionally, your claim that Titus 3:5 is a proof-text that water baptism saves because of the phrase “the water of regeneration” is also a complete misreading and misinterpretation of that phrase and entire verse. Read it in its entirety. It clearly states, “But when the kindness and the love of God our Savior toward man appeared, 5 not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 that having been justified by His grace we should become heirs according to the hope of eternal life.” This verse is not referring to water baptism whatsoever but instead speaks of the regeneration (i.e., salvation) that occurs when He washed us (i.e., regenerated/cleansed us from our sin) and renewed us through the Holy Spirit when we believed (see verse 7) -- so I don’t know how you can read that verse in its context and conclude that the “washing” it speaks of is literal water baptism. It clearly is not.

The word isn't washing, it's bath. A bath is taken in water. One immerses themselves in water to bathe. You are correct when you say it's about the cleansing of sins. That takes place in water baptism.

The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God;
2 As it is written in the prophets, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.
3 The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.
4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. (Mk. 1:1-4 KJV)

Note how Mark starts, the beginning of the Gospel of Jesus Christ. What's the first thing he mentions? The baptism for the remission of sins. It's part of the Gospel. We know Jesus did the same thing in His ministry.

Ananias also told Paul to be baptized as wash away his sins.

15 For thou shalt be his witness unto all men of what thou hast seen and heard.
16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord (Acts 22:15-16 KJV)

and then we have Peter,

38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. (Acts 2:38 KJV)

Baptism is for the remission of sins. Tell me Kris, how can one be saved without the remission of sins? If baptism isn't necessary then neither is the forgiveness of sins. This is plain and straight forward.

Notice also that Peter to them to repent and be baptized and they would receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. So Peter tells us that the Holy Spirit is received after one repents and is baptized; We know too that Jesus received the Holy Spirit when He was baptized.

16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:
17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased. (Matt. 3:16-17 KJV)

So, we see that baptism is for the forgiveness of sins and is the point where one receives the Holy Spirit

Finally, you wrote, “yes, you do need a passage that says ‘faith alone.’ If one is going to claim that one is saved by faith alone, then they need to show from Scripture that it is stated.”

This goes back to my first point where I said a statement as clear and exact as “my shirt is red” doesn’t need to include the word “only” or “alone” to convey the intended and plain meaning of the statement -- which is that my shirt is red, only red and has no other colors present on the shirt.

The same type of clear and exact verses on the subject of what saves us are found below and do not require the addition of the word “only” or “alone” to be understood. These verses speak directly to what actually saves us, and they speak directly to the vehicle or means by which we are saved. They are straight-shooting, specific and unequivocally clear in their plain and intended meaning. I really encourage you to re-read these verses, asking the Lord to show you His truth on this very specific subject and then answer the questions that follow each one below. I did not include all of the verses, but just a few to start:

Again, your red shirt argument is flawed. It's called the, "No True Scotsman" fallacy. This fallacy is often seen in OSAS debates. It goes like this. No Scotsman uses sugar on his porridge. Glen uses sugar on his porridge. Well, no true Scotsman uses sugar on his porridge.

When evidence is given that refutes the claim (Glen uses sugar on is porridge) the claim is simply changed to exclude the evidence. When I pointed out the there are other colors in the label on your red shirt, you simply dismissed the label so that those colors weren't on your shirt. Thus, you dismissed the evidence that refuted your claim. That's the "No True Scotsman" fallacy.



Ephesians 2:8-9 – For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast.

Question: What is the means by which Paul tells us we are saved?

In context Paul is addressing whether one saved by faith or the Mosaic Law. Of those two it is faith. But he didn't say it was faith alone. That's the part you're imposing on the passage.


Romans 5:1-2 – Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom also we have access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.



Question: What gives us actual peace with God? What element allows us access into God’s grace?

In context Paul is addressing whether one saved by faith or the Mosaic Law. Of those two it is faith. But he didn't say it was faith alone. That's the part you're imposing on the passage.


John 1:12-13 -- But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name: who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

Question: What is the means that gives us the right to be children of God? What actually causes us to be born of God?

This passage doesn't mention faith. It says as many as received Him. It's talking about Israel. However, in context we know that the Gospel that He brought contained baptism


Romans 3:28-30 -- Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law. Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also, since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith.



Question: What justifies someone before God? What is the means God will use to justify us before Himself?

In context Paul is addressing whether one saved by faith or the Mosaic Law. Of those two it is faith. But he didn't say it was faith alone. That's the part you're imposing on the passage.

Here again, the context is stated in the passage. It's the Mosaic Law.


Philippians 3:8b-9 -- ...so that I may gain Christ, and may be found in Him, not having a righteousness of my own derived from the Law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which comes from God on the basis of faith;

Question: What is the means by which we attain God’s righteousness for ourselves?

Again, the context shows that it's the same argument. It is righteousness through the Mosaic Law or faith.

You've mentioned the context and yet in these passages you've completely ignored it. Taking passages that are debating between faith and the Mosaic Law and using them to argue that baptism isn't necessary is absurd. Baptism has nothing to do with that argument. To say that the Mosaic Law doesn't justify but faith does, therefore baptism isn't necessary is a non sequitir, another fallacy.
 
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Butch5

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Hi Butch5,

I can see now where the root problem lies in all this. You are taking several verses on the subject of what actually saves us -- (which are as clear and exact in their meaning and intention as the statement “my shirt is red” is clear and exact in its meaning and intention) – and you are interpreting them to mean something other than what they clearly and emphatically state.

In other words, if I am writing a factual statement to someone about what color my shirt is -- (not the color of the interior label or the stitching around the edges of the shirt, but just the color of the shirt itself) -- and I write, “my shirt is red,” then that statement means exactly what it says. It means that my shirt is red, only red and no other colors are present on my shirt color other than the color red. There is no middle ground or grey area present in this quoted statement. Therefore, in order for someone to understand the clear and exact meaning of my statement within the context of my shirt’s color, I only need to write, “my shirt is red.” I don’t have to write “my shirt is only red” or “my shirt is red and red alone” or “my shirt doesn’t contain any other colors but red” in order for them to understand the plain and simple meaning of the actual color of my shirt.

Similarly, when verses such as Ephesians 2:8-9 or Romans 5:1-2 or Romans 3:28-30 state clearly and unequivocally (within their historical context and the overall context of Scripture as a whole) that the gift of salvation is given to us by/through faith, and we are justified by God through faith, and the access into God’s grace is through faith (not faith plus anything else), you claim those simple-to-understand verses don’t really mean what they state. This is an undermining of God’s word that started all the way back in the garden when Satan said to Eve, “Did God really say...?”

I have seen this same faulty methodology used by many who claim that baptism (or other works) is required for salvation. They claim that when a verse says salvation is by faith, or we are justified by faith, or we are saved when we believe, it doesn’t really mean what it says because it doesn’t include the word “only” or “alone.” Therefore, they conclude that those verses are open-ended and leave room for other things to be included or required – however, that is where the problem enters in. It goes back to the “my shirt is red” example. These verses of Scripture are not open-ended but are stating a clear fact on the subject of what actually saves us. Anything else not included in those statements doesn’t qualify as a means to our salvation, period.

Now regarding some of the verses you mentioned in your argument to prove that other things are required for salvation aside from faith only...

You used Hebrews 5:9 as a proof-text to show that “works of obedience” are required for salvation, however that is false. This verse does not state that whatsoever. The focus of this verse is Jesus and it simply declares that He, having suffered (and died), became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him. From elsewhere in Scripture, who are those who obey Him? The gospel of John says that those who love Jesus will obey Him -- Jesus tells us that Himself. (We also know from the gospel of John that we love Him because He first loved us and gave Himself up for us). James also talks about good works/obedience being the natural byproduct of genuine saving faith. He says that you can’t have genuine saving faith without any good works to show for it, because the type of genuine faith that actually brings salvation – whereby God changes our hearts and makes us a new creation through the indwelling Holy Spirit within us – can’t help but do good works in response to that internal, eternal change. It’s like a man who says he loves his wife. If he truly does, his love will naturally produce outward actions toward her that reflect the reality within his heart. If he doesn’t, then he won’t. So reading into Hebrews 5:9 to say that this verse proves obedience is required in order to be saved is false and says nothing of the sort.

You also used 1 Peter 3:21 as evidence that water baptism saves us but this is also a misunderstanding and misinterpretation of that verse. Peter is not speaking of the literal water of baptism here, but the spiritual baptism that takes place when we believe, as stated in the rest of that verse which speaks of a pledge of a good conscience toward God through the resurrection of Jesus Christ. Therefore it is His death, burial and resurrection that saves us when we believe, not the water that removes dirt from the body. This correct interpretation is in complete agreement with all other direct and clear verses on the subject of what actually saves us, which is faith and only faith.

Additionally, your claim that Titus 3:5 is a proof-text that water baptism saves because of the phrase “the water of regeneration” is also a complete misreading and misinterpretation of that phrase and entire verse. Read it in its entirety. It clearly states, “But when the kindness and the love of God our Savior toward man appeared, 5 not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 that having been justified by His grace we should become heirs according to the hope of eternal life.” This verse is not referring to water baptism whatsoever but instead speaks of the regeneration (i.e., salvation) that occurs when He washed us (i.e., regenerated/cleansed us from our sin) and renewed us through the Holy Spirit when we believed (see verse 7) -- so I don’t know how you can read that verse in its context and conclude that the “washing” it speaks of is literal water baptism. It clearly is not.

Finally, you wrote, “yes, you do need a passage that says ‘faith alone.’ If one is going to claim that one is saved by faith alone, then they need to show from Scripture that it is stated.”

This goes back to my first point where I said a statement as clear and exact as “my shirt is red” doesn’t need to include the word “only” or “alone” to convey the intended and plain meaning of the statement -- which is that my shirt is red, only red and has no other colors present on the shirt.

The same type of clear and exact verses on the subject of what saves us are found below and do not require the addition of the word “only” or “alone” to be understood. These verses speak directly to what actually saves us, and they speak directly to the vehicle or means by which we are saved. They are straight-shooting, specific and unequivocally clear in their plain and intended meaning. I really encourage you to re-read these verses, asking the Lord to show you His truth on this very specific subject and then answer the questions that follow each one below. I did not include all of the verses, but just a few to start:

Ephesians 2:8-9 – For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast.

Question: What is the means by which Paul tells us we are saved?


Romans 5:1-2 – Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ, through whom also we have access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.

Question: What gives us actual peace with God? What element allows us access into God’s grace?


John 1:12-13 -- But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name: who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

Question: What is the means that gives us the right to be children of God? What actually causes us to be born of God?


Romans 3:28-30 -- Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law. Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also, since there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith.

Question: What justifies someone before God? What is the means God will use to justify us before Himself?


Philippians 3:8b-9 -- ...so that I may gain Christ, and may be found in Him, not having a righteousness of my own derived from the Law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which comes from God on the basis of faith;

Question: What is the means by which we attain God’s righteousness for ourselves?

Kris, I've given you plain clear statements from Scripture. I've given you Jesus words from Mark 16. There is no way around that statement. No matter how hard on tries, there's just no way around it. One simply has to refuse to believe it. I've given you the words of the apostles that plainly state other things are necessary and you've tried to explain them away. In addition to that your entire argument is a logical fallacy, an argument from silence.

Here's a link to a site that explains the argument from silence and gives more examples. I'd encourage you to study these fallacies. All Christians should study Logical Fallacies. It would help them to understand the Bible better and it would help them to defend their beliefs much more strongly

Why is it a Logical Fallacy to Make an Argument from Silence? | Radically Christian

Logical Fallacies Handlist
 
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sdowney717

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Titus 3 New King James Version (NKJV)

Graces of the Heirs of Grace
1 Remind them to be subject to rulers and authorities, to obey, to be ready for every good work, 2 to speak evil of no one, to be peaceable, gentle, showing all humility to all men. 3 For we ourselves were also once foolish, disobedient, deceived, serving various lusts and pleasures, living in malice and envy, hateful and hating one another. 4 But when the kindness and the love of God our Savior toward man appeared,

5 not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 that having been justified by His grace we should become heirs according to the hope of eternal life.

8 This is a faithful saying, and these things I want you to affirm constantly, that those who have believed in God should be careful to maintain good works. These things are good and profitable to men.

We are honestly justified by His grace.
The regeneration is not a water baptismal regeneration where another human uses some water.
This washing regeneration is a renewal by the Holy Spirit alone, it is then that we are saved as we are become part of His family. He does this for us due to Him being merciful towards us.
People who are water baptized have already been regenerated as they have already confessed and believed in the Lord Jesus Christ.
 
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sdowney717

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Romans 10, notice how Paul uses the word saved....and if saved, that means your definitely saved right then and there, nothing else is needed to be saved. If you say something else is needed your adding in something not required to be saved.

5 For Moses writes about the righteousness which is of the law, “The man who does those things shall live by them.” 6 But the righteousness of faith speaks in this way, “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’ ” (that is, to bring Christ down from above) 7 or, “ ‘Who will descend into the abyss?’ ” (that is, to bring Christ up from the dead). 8 But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart” (that is, the word of faith which we preach):

9 that if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

11 For the Scripture says, “Whoever believes on Him will not be put to shame.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek, for the same Lord over all is rich to all who call upon Him.

13 For “whoever calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.
 
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Butch5

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Titus 3 New King James Version (NKJV)

Graces of the Heirs of Grace
1 Remind them to be subject to rulers and authorities, to obey, to be ready for every good work, 2 to speak evil of no one, to be peaceable, gentle, showing all humility to all men. 3 For we ourselves were also once foolish, disobedient, deceived, serving various lusts and pleasures, living in malice and envy, hateful and hating one another. 4 But when the kindness and the love of God our Savior toward man appeared,

5 not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 that having been justified by His grace we should become heirs according to the hope of eternal life.

8 This is a faithful saying, and these things I want you to affirm constantly, that those who have believed in God should be careful to maintain good works. These things are good and profitable to men.

We are honestly justified by His grace.
The regeneration is not a water baptismal regeneration where another human uses some water.
This washing regeneration is a renewal by the Holy Spirit alone, it is then that we are saved as we are become part of His family. He does this for us due to Him being merciful towards us.
People who are water baptized have already been regenerated as they have already confessed and believed in the Lord Jesus Christ.

Actually, it is water. Washing is a bad translation. The Greek word literally means a bath. It's just like Jesus said, 'unless one is born of water and the spirit he cannot see the kongdom of God'. Paul is acknowledging this with bath of regeneration and the renewing of the spirit. Both speak of water baptism and the spirit.
 
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sdowney717

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Actually, it is water. Washing is a bad translation. The Greek word literally means a bath. It's just like Jesus said, 'unless one is born of water and the spirit he cannot see the kongdom of God'. Paul is acknowledging this with bath of regeneration and the renewing of the spirit. Both speak of water baptism and the spirit.
Jesus said you must be born of water and the Spirit, but if that means water baptism, then what Paul wrote in Romans 10 is error.
Paul is explaining what Jesus said and refers to being regenerated as a precursor to being saved.
Yes water washes things, but earthly water can not make you spiritually clean on the inside.
In another scripture Jesus tells His disciples they are made clean by the word He spoke unto them, but not all were clean as in Judas Iscariot.

And here, Jesus says clean the inside FIRST, then the outside may also be clean.

Matthew 23:25 “Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you cleanse the outside of the cup and dish, but inside they are full of extortion and self-indulgence.
Matthew 23:26 Blind Pharisee, first cleanse the inside of the cup and dish, that the outside of them may be clean also.
 
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Butch5

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Jesus said you must be born of water and the Spirit, but if that means water baptism, then what Paul wrote in Romans 10 is error.
Paul is explaining what Jesus said and refers to being regenerated as a precursor to being saved.
Yes water washes things, but earthly water can not make you spiritually clean on the inside.
In another scripture Jesus tells His disciples they are made clean by the word He spoke unto them, but not all were clean as in Judas Iscariot.

It doesn't effect what Paul said at all. The word regeneration only appears twice in Scripture. Jesus uses it of the resurrection which is literally a regeneration (Ezekiel 37). Paul uses it figuratively of people being baptized. What was the word that Jesus spoke to them? He spoke the Gospel to them. The Gospel contains water baptism.



And here, Jesus says clean the inside FIRST, then the outside may also be clean.

Matthew 23:25 “Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! For you cleanse the outside of the cup and dish, but inside they are full of extortion and self-indulgence.
Matthew 23:26 Blind Pharisee, first cleanse the inside of the cup and dish, that the outside of them may be clean also.

This passage is addressing something completely different. He's talking about the Pharisees putting a show to look righteous when they were actually wicked in their hearts
 
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This thread reminds me of the advantages of adopting a dispensationalist view of the Bible.

Instead of having to "ping pong" between Mark 16:16/Acts 2:38 and Paul's epistles, you can reconcile the two by understanding that there were two different Gospel messages going on.

One for the Jews only which requires water baptism, another for Gentiles that no longer need water baptism.
 
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This thread reminds me of the advantages of adopting a dispensationalist view of the Bible.

Instead of having to "ping pong" between Mark 16:16/Acts 2:38 and Paul's epistles, you can reconcile the two by understanding that there were two different Gospel messages going on.

One for the Jews only which requires water baptism, another for Gentiles that no longer need water baptism.

I don't believe there were two gospels. A lot of the problem is improper reasoning. Too many Christians don't reason correctly and as such come to wrong conclusions.
 
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