Rom 4:1-3 What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather, discovered in this matter? If, in fact, Abraham was justified by works, he had something to boast about— but not before God. What does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness."
So Paul's point was that Abraham was justified by faith apart from doing anything else. The promise was given, the next moment he believe God, and that belief was right then what justified him. What do you think "it" refers to? Abraham's belief in God was credited to him as righteousness.
In Romans 3, Paul just showed that even though the Jews had an advantage in being given their own law, it did not justify then for that OT law of Moses required the work of strict perfect flawless law keeping to be justified yet the Jews sinned and did not keep it perfectly. Paul shows at the end of Rom 3 it is not deeds of the OT law that justify but faith.
Into Romans 4:
Romans 4:1 "
What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?"
What did Abraham get from his own works in the flesh, by his own efforts? Did he justify himself by his own works? NO! Did Abraham keep the law sinlessly perfectly NO!
Romans 4:2 "
For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God."
"Works" here refer to perfect flawless works required by the OT law and not to obedience to the Lord's will for Abraham DID in fact have an obedient faith Hebrews 11:8,17. Paul in Romans 3 and 4 is CONTRASTING flawless works required by the law FROM obedience to God's will.
If Abraham were justifed by works, he hath where of to glory, that is, if Abraham kept the law perfectly that would be something he could boast about. Abraham could baost in himself and his perfect works and not boast in God.
Romans 4:3 "
For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness."
Instead of working to keep the law perfectly whereby he could boast, Abraham instead believed God. Paul here is referring to Genesis 15:6 because that verse contains the words Paul needs to make his point in Abraham beleiving and being reckoned righteous. Yet Abraham was already in a saved covenant relationship with God prior to Gen 15:6, already had an obedient faith (Gen 12) that was righteous before God.
Romans 4:4 "
Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt."
"Worketh" refers to flawless law keeping here, if Abraham worked and kept the law perfectly, flawlessly then his reward would be something owed him, not of grace. Grace is needed by those who sin. But Abraham was not perfectly sinless but he did have an obedient faith. So again, Paul is CONTRASTING flawless works required by the OT law FORM an obedient faith.
Rom 4:5 "
But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness."
Abraham was one who worketh not did not work and keep the OT law perfectly, did not justify himself by his own flesh per verse 1 but instead had an obedient faith by which he was justified by God. In v4 here Paul continues to CONTRAST flawless works required by the OT law FROM an obedient faith.
In the context, the "worker" is an obedient man trying to be justified by flawless, perfect law keeping. The "non-woker" therefore is a sinner, unrighteous disobedient man not keeping God's law. Abraham was a beleiver, he did not work to keep the law perfect but did obey God's will and repented when he failed, offered sacrifices for his sins.