Ways Salvation-by-Works Christians Misconstrue Scripture

MDC

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You skipped my reply to you in post #210. Can you please answer those questions?
Those broken off are wolves in sheep’s clothing. False professors who are known by their fruit or lack there of, as Matthew 7:15-23 is describing. But I’m sure you’ve heard that before and yet don’t agree simply because you are pushing justification by works of men. Tell me how you and others on this forum who push this doctrine are no different from what Paul accursed in Galatians. Galatians 2:16 and Galatians 3:3 describe you all so well. And you still cannot say Christ guarantees salvation for apart from your help can you?
 
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BNR32FAN

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Those broken off are wolves in sheep’s clothing. False professors who are known by their fruit or lack there of, as Matthew 7:15-23 is describing. But I’m sure you’ve heard that before and yet don’t agree simply because you are pushing justification by works of men. Tell me how you and others on this forum who push this doctrine are no different from what Paul accursed in Galatians. Galatians 2:16 and Galatians 3:3 describe you all so well. And you still cannot say Christ guarantees salvation for apart from your help can you?

No I don’t agree, not because I’m trying to push anything friend, I don’t agree because Jesus is the one confessing that the branches are in Him. Not the branches themselves. In verse 4 when Jesus says

“Abide in Me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself unless it abides in the vine, so neither can you unless you abide in Me.”
‭‭JOHN‬ ‭15:4‬ ‭NASB‬

Who is He speaking to? Is He speaking to false professors?
 
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MDC

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No I don’t agree, not because I’m trying to push anything friend, I don’t agree because Jesus is the one confessing that the branches are in Him. Not the branches themselves. In verse 4 when Jesus says

“Abide in Me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself unless it abides in the vine, so neither can you unless you abide in Me.”
‭‭JOHN‬ ‭15:4‬ ‭NASB‬

Who is He speaking to? Is He speaking to false professors?
By being in Him doesn’t necessarily mean saved in Him. It can also mean all those who outwardly profess to be in Him. If Christ promised His sheep will never parish John 6:39, John 10:27-29, then how can you interpret a complete contradiction to what He said? Was Judas saved, as He was speaking to His disciples? And why isn’t vs 16 taken into account in your interpretation?
 
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BNR32FAN

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By being in Him doesn’t necessarily mean saved in Him. It can also mean all those who outwardly profess to be in Him. If Christ promised His sheep will never parish John 6:39, John 10:27-29, then how can you interpret a complete contradiction to what He said? Was Judas saved, as He was speaking to His disciples? And why isn’t vs 16 taken into account in your interpretation?

Jesus is telling them to abide (remain) in Him. John 10:27 He says My sheep hear My voice, I know them and they follow Me. If Jesus was speaking in the perfect or present tense then that would mean He is referring to those who continuously follow Him. He is the Way, the Truth, and the Life no one comes to The Father except thru Him. If someone fails to continue to follow the Way (Jesus) they cannot come to The Father. Can someone abide in Christ if they don’t continue to follow Him?
 
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BNR32FAN

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By being in Him doesn’t necessarily mean saved in Him. It can also mean all those who outwardly profess to be in Him. If Christ promised His sheep will never parish John 6:39, John 10:27-29, then how can you interpret a complete contradiction to what He said? Was Judas saved, as He was speaking to His disciples? And why isn’t vs 16 taken into account in your interpretation?

Verse 16 Jesus is telling His faithful 11 apostles that He has chosen them to complete a task.
 
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BNR32FAN

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By being in Him doesn’t necessarily mean saved in Him. It can also mean all those who outwardly profess to be in Him. If Christ promised His sheep will never parish John 6:39, John 10:27-29, then how can you interpret a complete contradiction to what He said? Was Judas saved, as He was speaking to His disciples? And why isn’t vs 16 taken into account in your interpretation?

You do realize that Judas was not present for this message right? Judas had left the group in the upper room before they left for Gethsemane. This takes place while they are walking to the olive groves in Gethsemane. So only His faithful 11 apostles are present to hear the message. There are no false professors present.
 
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MDC

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You do realize that Judas was not present for this message right? Judas had left the group in the upper room before they left for Gethsemane. This takes place while they are walking to the olive groves in Gethsemane. So only His faithful 11 apostles are present to hear the message. There are no false professors present.
That didn’t answer my question. Was he saved?
 
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MDC

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Jesus is telling them to abide (remain) in Him. John 10:27 He says My sheep hear My voice, I know them and they follow Me. If Jesus was speaking in the perfect or present tense then that would mean He is referring to those who continuously follow Him. He is the Way, the Truth, and the Life no one comes to The Father except thru Him. If someone fails to continue to follow the Way (Jesus) they cannot come to The Father. Can someone abide in Christ if they don’t continue to follow Him?
They follow because they are His sheep. You assume they are sheep because they follow. Jesus tells them in vs 26 they believe not because they aren’t of His sheep. You have it backwards and deny Gods grace in saving His sheep in Christ. Only Gods elect follow and come to believe the gospel by grace. It is why your understanding of “following” or abiding is the basis for justification before God. And because of that understanding you do not see abiding and persevering in faith is the fruit of a believer by Gods power and grace. The just live by faith. This doctrine you espouse cannot say that. So how are you different from the Judaizers? And how do you assume Christ contradicts Himself from the scriptures I posted by your interpretation of John 15?
 
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BNR32FAN

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They follow because they are His sheep. You assume they are sheep because they follow. Jesus tells them in vs 26 they believe not because they aren’t of His sheep. You have it backwards and deny Gods grace in saving His sheep in Christ. Only Gods elect follow and come to believe the gospel by grace. It is why your understanding of “following” or abiding is the basis for justification before God. And because of that understanding you do not see abiding and persevering in faith is the fruit of a believer by Gods power and grace. The just live by faith. This doctrine you espouse cannot say that. So how are you different from the Judaizers? And how do you assume Christ contradicts Himself from the scriptures I posted by your interpretation of John 15?

Ok notice how my interpretation if John 10:27-29 goes hand in hand with John 15 which was our original discussion and your understanding of John 10:27-29 is in conflict with John 15 which is why we’re talking about John 10 to begin with. You say I assume they are His sheep because they follow? Why would I have to assume that, It’s plainly stated right there in the scriptures. Look at the context here.

“Jesus answered them, "I told you, and you do not believe; the works that I do in My Father's name, these testify of Me.

The works He does in The Father’s name testify that He is of The Father. Notice the similarity in John 15:4. If you abide in Me and I in You you will bear much fruit. Or our works are evidence of whom we are a slave to Romans 6:15-18, evidence of whom our master is.

But you do not believe because you are not of My sheep.

In His next statement He describes the qualities of His sheep, not what makes them His sheep, but the defining characteristics that sets them apart and makes them noticeable to others.

My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me

If you say that His sheep do not follow you are disagreeing with the characteristics Jesus provided to describe His sheep. If you say they don’t have to continue following then your saying they don’t have to abide (remain) in Christ.

and I give eternal life to them, and they will never perish

Them referring to His sheep who know Him, listen to Him, and follow Him. Not followed for a little while then stopped following. If someone doesn’t continue to follow Christ they are following satan. There is no in between. Either God is your master or satan. Jesus said we cannot serve two masters because we will hate one and love the other. Granted it was in reference to God and wealth but His example shows it applies to any master other than God.

and no one will snatch them out of My hand. My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of the Father's hand. I and the Father are one."”
‭‭JOHN‬ ‭10:25-30‬ ‭NASB‬‬

No one can snatch them from The Father’s hand. The Greek definition of the word snatch is

1) to seize, carry off by force

2) to seize on, claim for one's self eagerly

3) to snatch out or away

Nothing about this indicates that someone will not be cast away as stated in John 15:6 or that someone cannot walk away of their own choice. This is dealing with outside forces meaning that no one can take away our salvation. It doesn’t mean that our salvation cannot be revoked or rejected. John 15:6 is dealing with branches that are attached to the vine who failed to abide. They did not remain in Christ, they no longer follow Him.

You seem to be saying that we do not need to follow Christ to be one of His sheep but then when it comes to abiding (remaining) in Christ you say the ones who fail to abide are false professors. So it seems like in one breath your saying we don’t have to continue following to be His sheep but in another your saying that only true believers will abide. The implications of follow and abide are the same thing. Your example of the wheat and tares does not apply to this subject because there are no tares present for this message. You still haven’t answered the question why does Jesus say to His 11 faithful apostles in verse 4 “abide in Me for without Me you can do nothing.” Surely you know these men are not false professors. So why would Jesus tell them to abide in Him, even explaining the consequences of failing to abide, if they were incapable of failing to abide?

I’ll address your other statements in a separate post.
 
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BNR32FAN

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They follow because they are His sheep. You assume they are sheep because they follow. Jesus tells them in vs 26 they believe not because they aren’t of His sheep. You have it backwards and deny Gods grace in saving His sheep in Christ. Only Gods elect follow and come to believe the gospel by grace. It is why your understanding of “following” or abiding is the basis for justification before God. And because of that understanding you do not see abiding and persevering in faith is the fruit of a believer by Gods power and grace. The just live by faith. This doctrine you espouse cannot say that. So how are you different from the Judaizers? And how do you assume Christ contradicts Himself from the scriptures I posted by your interpretation of John 15?

Ok in this post I just want to address God’s election. I like to keep the topics separated so we don’t get too much jumbled information about too many different topics in one post and lose track of our conversation.

There are so many holes in the idea of God’s election that it cannot make any sense. I can ask about 13 questions about God’s election that Calvinists can’t seem to answer with any clarity.

If God’s election is true then...

1. According to John 3:18 why are we judged according to whether or not we believe if we are incapable of believing unless God has chosen us?

2. Wouldn’t that ultimately make God responsible for someone’s unbelief if He has not enabled them to believe?

3. Wouldn’t it be unjust for God to judge someone according to whether or not they believe if He has created them as being incapable of believing and has not enabled them to do so?

4. Why did Jesus and the apostles tell people to believe if they are incapable of believing if they are not chosen by God and are incapable of failing to believe if they are chosen by God?

5. According to 1 Timothy 2:3-4 and 2 Peter 3:9 God wants everyone to repent and be saved and none to perish. So why would He only elect certain people to be saved and condemn all others giving them no chance for salvation?

6. According to John 3:16-17 God loved the world so much that He sent His Son so the world might be saved through Him, so why would Our loving God only elect certain people for salvation condemning all others?

7. If God’s election is true then eternal security must also be true because according to the doctrine of God’s elect they cannot be chosen and lose their salvation. So according to John 15:2 how can branches who are in Christ be cut off from the vine which is Christ?

8. Why did Jesus say to His 11 faithful apostles “abide in Me” even explaining to them the consequences of failing to abide which results in the loss of salvation if they are incapable of failing to abide?

9. In Ephesians 2 Paul is addressing children of God as so stated throughout the chapter, so why does he warn these same children of God in Ephesians 5:1-5 of living a sinful way of life that will result in them receiving the wrath of God on the sons of disobedience which results in them having no inheritance in the kingdom of God?

10. Romans 11 Paul warns the Galatians who have been grafted in of being cut off for unbelief even saying they can be grafted back in if they repent. Why would anyone be grafted in if they are not chosen by God and will fall from grace?

11. Romans 6:15-16 How can those who are under grace (God’s elect) sin to the point of becoming slaves to satan resulting in death?

12. If they are incapable of sinning to the point of becoming slaves to satan resulting in death what is the purpose of Paul’s statement? Why would he say this if those who are under grace are incapable of becoming slaves to satan and why would he say this to anyone who is not elected by God if they are condemned because they are incapable of being slaves to God?

13. Why did Jesus say “when the Son of Man is lifted up He will draw all men to Himself”?
 
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BNR32FAN

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They follow because they are His sheep. You assume they are sheep because they follow. Jesus tells them in vs 26 they believe not because they aren’t of His sheep. You have it backwards and deny Gods grace in saving His sheep in Christ. Only Gods elect follow and come to believe the gospel by grace. It is why your understanding of “following” or abiding is the basis for justification before God. And because of that understanding you do not see abiding and persevering in faith is the fruit of a believer by Gods power and grace. The just live by faith. This doctrine you espouse cannot say that. So how are you different from the Judaizers? And how do you assume Christ contradicts Himself from the scriptures I posted by your interpretation of John 15?

Please quote where I said following or abiding in Christ is the basis for justification. What is justification? Justification mean we are made right with God or counted as being righteous thru God’s grace for our faith. I have never in my entire life ever said that we are made right with God by following, abiding, works, baptism, or anything other than faith.

If abiding and perseverance is the fruit of grace and God’s power then how is it that someone can fail to abide and lose their salvation as clearly stated in John 15:6?

If anyone does not abide in Me, he is thrown away as a branch and dries up; and they gather them, and cast them into the fire and they are burned.”
‭‭JOHN‬ ‭15:6‬ ‭NASB‬‬

Surely you must admit that abiding and perseverance is not the fruit of grace and God’s power if John 15:6 clearly states that a person can in fact fail to abide.

How am I different from the Judaisers? I didn’t write John 15 or Romans 11 or Ephesians 5 or Romans 6. I’m not the one saying any of these things. I’m simply relaying the message. What were the Judaisers teaching? They were teaching justification by obedience to the law. They were teaching that we can be made right with God by doing works of keeping the law. I have never said any such thing. Justification just means you have been given a clean slate. You have been given a chance to start anew. What you do with your life afterwards can affect whether or not you receive salvation. Did you serve God or did you serve satan? Did you abide in Christ or not? I’m not asking these directed to you just using them as examples.
 
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sculleywr

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I mean this politely, but notice how I can achieve peaceful dialogue with most? But, there's a hint of snap to my tone when we discuss things.

I'm going to let your misrepresentation hang there... Also Congratulations!

1422082189686706215.png
It's not a misrepresentation just because you want it to be. If people who are degenerate cannot choose good, then the ENTIRE reason that they sin is because God made them sin. The only way in which a person is fully LOGICALLY responsible for something he does is if it was within his power to choose not to do it. If it is impossible for a person to do true good, the only thing left to him is sin. Thus, God is responsible for all sin, and the KJV translation is correct in saying that God creates evil.

God makes people sin and then blames them for doing what He truly wanted them to do. To make matters worse, God then lies in Scripture by claiming to desire good things, claiming to love the world, claiming to be holy and even claiming to be JUST. If Calvinism is correct, then God is a liar and not worthy of worship. A just God judges every man according to the same standards, with no artificial or outside influences, with true impartiality. He does not give one group of people special help that He doesn't give all people. So if one person receives assistance from God in overcoming temptation, then ALL people MUST receive that same assistance.

This is why, in its essence, Calvinism is nothing more than Hellenistic Fatalism wrapped up in Christian clothing. It takes the same exact logic and arguments, then adds in the lie that such a god could ever be worthy of worship when he lies to our faces.
 
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sculleywr

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How is one justified before God then if Christ and His redeeming work did not merit it for believers? How would you interpret Romans 4:24-25
Meriting legal forgiveness is not justification. Justification does not just LABEL a person as righteous. Justification transforms a person, making that person BECOME righteous. Imputation is incorrect because it only gives a person the label of righteousness. If we imagine justification as though we were cups needing cleaned, Imputation is wiping the outside of the cup and putting it in the cupboard claiming it is clean, while justification is taking the cup, putting it in hot, soapy water, scrubbing it until all the dirt and grease and grime are gone, then rinsing and sanitizing it in boiling hot water, drying it off and then putting it in the cupboard. Protestantism promises the former. Orthodoxy and the Apostles promised us the latter.
 
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sculleywr

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Who doesn’t strive for holiness that you’ve read on here? All I see are those who falsely think their works of righteousness justifies them before God
I put on here earlier that we can do all things through Christ Who gives us strength. Saying that we can achieve justification through works of righteousness done through Christ Jesus was likened to achieving Superman's ability to fly. That is what holiness is. If a person says that being truly holy is impossible, then he is not striving for TRUE holiness. You are never striving for something that you say is impossible. The first step to striving for something is saying that it can be done.
 
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Grip Docility

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It's not a misrepresentation just because you want it to be. If people who are degenerate cannot choose good, then the ENTIRE reason that they sin is because God made them sin. The only way in which a person is fully LOGICALLY responsible for something he does is if it was within his power to choose not to do it. If it is impossible for a person to do true good, the only thing left to him is sin. Thus, God is responsible for all sin, and the KJV translation is correct in saying that God creates evil.

God makes people sin and then blames them for doing what He truly wanted them to do. To make matters worse, God then lies in Scripture by claiming to desire good things, claiming to love the world, claiming to be holy and even claiming to be JUST. If Calvinism is correct, then God is a liar and not worthy of worship. A just God judges every man according to the same standards, with no artificial or outside influences, with true impartiality. He does not give one group of people special help that He doesn't give all people. So if one person receives assistance from God in overcoming temptation, then ALL people MUST receive that same assistance.

This is why, in its essence, Calvinism is nothing more than Hellenistic Fatalism wrapped up in Christian clothing. It takes the same exact logic and arguments, then adds in the lie that such a god could ever be worthy of worship when he lies to our faces.

I’m far from Reformed. Soap box misplaced. I don’t believe in determinism.
 
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sculleywr

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I’m far from Reformed. Soap box misplaced. I don’t believe in determinism.
By "the Reformer", I mean Calvin, Luther, Zwingli, Arminius, etc. I mean all of the people who were leaders during the period known as the Classical or Magisterial Reformation. I'm not talking strictly about the modern denomination which calls itself "Reformed". And you're defending a belief that can only lead logically to a Deterministic outcome. If a person has no ability by his nature to avoid sin, then it is necessary that his path be determined by someone capable of determining for him.
 
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Grip Docility

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By "the Reformer", I mean Calvin, Luther, Zwingli, Arminius, etc. I mean all of the people who were leaders during the period known as the Classical or Magisterial Reformation. I'm not talking strictly about the modern denomination which calls itself "Reformed". And you're defending a belief that can only lead logically to a Deterministic outcome. If a person has no ability by his nature to avoid sin, then it is necessary that his path be determined by someone capable of determining for him.

Right. None of them are my doctrinal influences.

I even reject Augustine’s premise of what original sin is.

Plato’s ideas of God sway reform and Post Denominational Catholicism far differently than I found my Scriptural beliefs.

I do not believe in “disabled” mankind doctrine. I simply believe we respond to privation selfishly and sin by choice and selfishness.

This is only the tip of my doctrinal iceberg.

I assure you, I’m not reformed by any account.
 
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