Why did Adam and Eve sin if there was no sin?

DM25

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well let's take a look at that.

first let's back up to verse 7:

1 John 3:7(NKJV)
7
Little children, let no one deceive you. He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous.

so if you practice something it becomes your habit to do as you practice, and so in verse 8, john is also saying that if you practice sinning then that's what you're really all about.

so how does one practice righteousness?

1 John 2:4-6(NKJV)
4
He who says, “I know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.
5But whoever keeps His word, truly the love of God is perfected in him. By this we know that we are in Him.
6He who says he abides in Him ought himself also to walk just as He walked.

we practice righteousness by keeping the commandments! (see psalms 119:172) :oldthumbsup:

remember, in exodus 16:4, God said of the COI "that I may test them, whether they will walk in My law or not"


1 John 1:6-7(NKJV)

6If we say that we have fellowship with Him, and walk in darkness (practice sinning), we lie and do not practice the truth.
7But if we walk in the light as He is in the light (practice righteousness), we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus Christ His Son cleanses us from all sin.

john is making a distinction between the children of God and the children of satan in how they live their lives.

in verse 9, using nkjv and kjv:


1 John 3:9(NKJV)
9
Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God.

1 John 3:9(KJV)
9
Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

the word "born" in this context would've been more properly translated "begotten", which would better make the distinction to which john was pointing.

the word "born" in the verse is from the greek "gennaō". in 1john 5:1, the word is used three times in the same sentence and it gets different translations in the kjv's versions.

here's how young's translated the verse:


1 John 3:9(YLT)
9
every one who hath been begotten of God, sin he doth not, because his seed in him doth remain, and he is not able to sin, because of God he hath been begotten.

it's little better but they still say "he is not able to sin", which is misleading.

and here's esv's version:


1 John 3:9(ESV)
9
No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God’s seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God.

they get the sentiment right, but use "born" rather than "begotten", which would translate the verse correctly.

No one begotten of God makes a practice of sinning, for God’s seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been begotten of God.

not that he "cannot" sin or is "no able to", but rather cannot keep sinning.

john simply lets us know the difference between those of us who are practicing righteousness and the ones who are practicing sinning.
Wrong. You are using ESV which is corrupted. KJV literally says "Can't sin" not continue in sin... See how these corrupted versions twist things around? KJV is saying you CAN'T sin, your new spirit is sinless, it can't sin. That's what lives on for eternity.

"and he cannot sin, because he is born of God."
 
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bling

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Sprit vs flesh. The spirit cannot sin, it's impossible, and the spirit goes to heaven (along with the new glorified body). The flesh can still, we still have the flesh that will die. Our spirit is perfected and can't sin as scripture says. Therefore we can't sin in heaven.

1 John is indeed talking about present-tense. How our spirit in the present-tense can't sin. Our new spirit is born of God, our flesh is born of Adam which has sin.
The agnostics thought man could be separated into the Spiritual and the flesh, which led to the flesh doing its thing which did not impact the spirit of the person.

You seem to be saying something similar: my spiritual self does not sin only my fleshly self is sinning?

Why are there warnings given Christians against sinning?

Is sin a problem for Christians at all?
 
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DM25

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The agnostics thought man could be separated into the Spiritual and the flesh, which led to the flesh doing its thing which did not impact the spirit of the person.

You seem to be saying something similar: my spiritual self does not sin only my fleshly self is sinning?

Why are there warnings given Christians against sinning?

Is sin a problem for Christians at all?
No I'm not saying it's ok to keep sinning. I am just trying to show the difference between the flesh and the spirit. The spirit is your new man, and God calls us to forsake the flesh and crucify the flesh and live out the new man. But your flesh hasn't been perfected... Your spirit has been perfected as it says in 1 John, one born of God can't sin, when you receive a new spirit it's impossible. However our flesh can still give into flesh sometimes, we all stumble, but our flesh doesn't go to heaven, it dies. Our spirit goes to heaven, and then our spirit will receive a new glorified body which will be sinless too.

God sees us in our new spirit. In him he doesn't see us as sinners anymore as we have no sin. Our spirit cannot sin, it's impossible, it is perfected. It's just our rotten flesh that can sometimes sin, and so we still have sin as we our in our flesh. We don't have new glorified bodies yet. In heaven this will not be the case. We will have perfected bodies, with no sin at all.
 
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ewq1938

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"where there is no law there is no transgression"



"where there is no law there is no transgression"


That doesn't change that sin existed before Adam and Eve.
 
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PROPHECYKID

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It's not that we won't have free will. It's just we can't sin. God has free will, but he cant sin. Where there is no evil and no devil there is no sin, so it's physically impossible. We still have free will, but when sin is not in the picture, we can't do it anyway!
Well why did the devil sin when there was no sin.
 
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bling

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No I'm not saying it's ok to keep sinning. I am just trying to show the difference between the flesh and the spirit. The spirit is your new man, and God calls us to forsake the flesh and crucify the flesh and live out the new man. But your flesh hasn't been perfected... Your spirit has been perfected as it says in 1 John, one born of God can't sin, when you receive a new spirit it's impossible. However our flesh can still give into flesh sometimes, we all stumble, but our flesh doesn't go to heaven, it dies. Our spirit goes to heaven, and then our spirit will receive a new glorified body which will be sinless too.

God sees us in our new spirit. In him he doesn't see us as sinners anymore as we have no sin. Our spirit cannot sin, it's impossible, it is perfected. It's just our rotten flesh that can sometimes sin, and so we still have sin as we our in our flesh. We don't have new glorified bodies yet. In heaven this will not be the case. We will have perfected bodies, with no sin at all.
Here is the problem:

You can redefine “we” from including “you” body, soul, mind and spirit to just being “spirit” or you can redefine “sin” to be not any and all sins to being only repetitive or unrepented of sins (you can still sinner, but since they are washed away immediately you are not a sinner.

Why would it be significant to have this hidden sinless spirit dwelling within you and yet not able to control your earthly body?

Are we just “denying” we are sinning when we sin, because this enter un-seeable inter self (spiritual self) is not sinning? This would help us feel better about ourselves, but should we and how does this help others?

Does scripture point to all “Christians” who sinned and say they were never Christians?
 
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WebersHome

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KJV is saying you CAN'T sin, your new spirit is sinless, it can't sin.

I'm not a koiné Greek scholar, but I've been a Bible student long enough to know that it isn't always possible to translate one language into another language word for word, and grammar for grammar, because of ambiguity; defined by Webster's as a word or expression that can be understood in two or more possible ways.

The KJV was the best that English translators could do with the scholarship available to them four hundred years ago, but even then it was an arbitrary, man-made translation; God didn't do it any more than He's done the NIV, the NASV, the Catholic, or any other English translation for that matter. And besides, the language and grammar of the KJV is obsolete and should never be thought of as a gold standard, so to speak.

Anyway, the KJV's version of 1John 3:9 doesn't fit the context of that third chapter. The translation below is much better suited.

"No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God." (NIV)

In other words; it's only a matter of time before a born-again Christian begins to think seriously about reform. It's inevitable due to the promise below.

"I will give you a new heart and put a new spirit in you; I will remove from you your heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. And I will put My spirit in you and move you to follow My decrees and be careful to keep My laws." (Ezek 36:26-27)
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JohnRabbit

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Wrong. You are using ESV which is corrupted. KJV literally says "Can't sin" not continue in sin... See how these corrupted versions twist things around? KJV is saying you CAN'T sin, your new spirit is sinless, it can't sin. That's what lives on for eternity.

"and he cannot sin, because he is born of God."
how is esv corrupted? :scratch:
 
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Jonaitis

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Why did Adam and Eve sin if there was no sin?

Well, they were in a state of innocence, not perfection, there is a difference. Second, temptation was the factor that changed the situation. It is not a sin to be tempted, for Jesus himself was tempted by Satan. It is falling into the temptation that it becomes sin. They were in a state of purity and innocence, but through temptation they were easily drawn to fall.

I believe inexperience and unfamiliarity to facing temptation was part of Eve's weakness, as well as knowing/actively engaging it with a resolution to be obedient was lacking.
 
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Gottservant

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Well, they were in a state of innocence, not perfection, there is a difference.

Great answer!

I was going to say Eve merely started to sin, it was not yet iniquity (that is "beyond control") - so it was sin that didn't lead to death (as some sins do not).

Remember, Jesus said "it is not what goes into the mouth defiles a man, but that which comes out of a man defiles a man" - so without espousing sin, as a result of eating the forbidden fruit, there is just the death (of having sinned, not the death of having sinned to death) - in other words it is a death that can be resurrected, not a death that cannot be resurrected.

As Jesus demonstrates, sin that is not sin to death, can be resurrected.
 
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AntiVillain

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We will not have the free will to sin in heaven, plain and simple. And thank God for that. The devil, evil, and sin will all be wiped away. We will not know what sin is. Our memories of sin will be wiped away.
I.e., robots.
 
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