What is obedience to the gospel?


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Following the same logic, given that the apostle John says, "If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us." 1John 1:8, you're likewise saying that John is "for the position of sinning and promotes licentious living".

Basically your statements are non sequitur. I've already provided sufficient information for a rational person to understand my view of what the apostle John is saying. I furthermore referenced two sets of study guides I developed for 1John, which anyone with basic reading comprehension skills should be able to understand. But apparently you're incapable of understanding.
1John Bible Study Guides
1John Sunday School Class Lessons

Okay, I read one of your website articles here.
What is characteristically not sinning? What does that even mean?
Do you have an example of how that works in the real world?
Are you saying that a believer will only lie every 5 days?
Or would it be that they only lie every 5 months?
What sins do you think believers will not overcome?

As for Sinless Perfection: I am not allowed to talk about Sinless Perfection in this section of the forums. So I will refer you to this thread here:

The Scriptures Teaching on Sinless Perfection.

But for your quick reference: It is not a salvation issue.
For not all sins are the same (See 1 John 5:17).

Anyways, what is 1 John 1:8 saying?

Well, 1 John 1:8 is about denying sin's existence (if we say we have no sin when we do sin the truth is not in us). This is basically a person saying that "sin" does not apply to them in regards to their right standing with God. For 1 John 1:8 has to be read in context to 1 John 2:4. They are essentially saying the same thing (for if we say we know Him and do not keep His commandments the truth is not in us). 1 John 1:8 is a warning to the brethren against thinking the same way as the gnostics who denied sin's existence by thinking that there was no dire after death consequences if they did sin (1 John 2:26). Hence, why 1 John 1:9 is the next verse that follows - because it teaches a person what to do if they do happen to sin. 1 John 1:8 is written to the Christian Scientist today who thinks sin does not exist whatsoever. 1 John 1:8 is also written to the OSAS proponent (i.e. The Once Saved Always Saved believer) today because they partially deny sin's existence. For they believe they sin physically but yet they think sin does not exist for them on a spiritual level whatsoever because Christ paid for all their sins including present and future sins (Whereby some of them believe confession of sin is not necessary in order to be forgiven of sin). In other words, these types of believers ignore 1 John 1:8 and in some cases some of them ignore 1 John 1:9 as a result of their denial of the consequences of sin.
 
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@bcbsr

Does a Christian have to confess sin so as to be forgiven of their sin?
Or is the Christian already saved before they even confess of their sin?
What if a Christian goes several weeks or months without confessing their sin to the Lord?
Are they not turning God's grace into a license for immorality during that time they are not confessing their sins to the Lord? Are they no longer living holy in that amount of time or are they living holy still?
 
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Hammster

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@bcbsr

Does a Christian have to confess sin so as to be forgiven of their sin?
Or is the Christian already saved before they even confess of their sin?
What if a Christian goes several weeks or months without confessing their sin to the Lord?
Are they not turning God's grace into a license for immorality during that time they are not confessing their sins to the Lord? Are they no longer living holy in that amount of time or are they living holy still?
1. No.
2. Christians, by definition, are saved.
3. Then there’s something wrong.
4. Yes
5. Not living holy, but are still holy.
 
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bcbsr

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As for Sinless Perfection: I am not allowed to talk about Sinless Perfection in this section of the forums. So I will refer you to this thread here:

The Scriptures Teaching on Sinless Perfection.

But for your quick reference: It is not a salvation issue.
For not all sins are the same (See 1 John 5:17).
So you're saying that a person can live in sin and not lose his salvation, as long it's not in some hypothetical "different category of sin". But that a person must live up to your "law" which you parse together with laws from the Moses and the sermon on the mount in order to be save. So have you perfectly, without fault, lived up to your "law"? Or did you lose your salvation? Did you love the Lord with all your heart, mind, soul and strength, or were there instances in which you only gave 90% and so lost your salvation. Might there have been violations that you committed, but you simply forgot or overlooked them?
 
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bcbsr

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Does a Christian have to confess sin so as to be forgiven of their sin?
Or is the Christian already saved before they even confess of their sin?
What if a Christian goes several weeks or months without confessing their sin to the Lord?
Are they not turning God's grace into a license for immorality during that time they are not confessing their sins to the Lord? Are they no longer living holy in that amount of time or are they living holy still?
Those who have been born of God characteristically call sin for what it is. But what about you? Have you ever committed a sin? Did you lose your salvation when you committed a sin? Do you claim sinless perfection? Or do you simply fudge it claiming that you're allowed to commit certain sins without losing your salvation? Do you live up to the standards of your own law?

"If a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come by the law. But the Scripture declares that the whole world is a prisoner of sin, so that what was promised, being given through faith in Jesus Christ, might be given to those who believe." Gal 3:21,22

We who believe the gospel don't put our faith in our own performance to save us, unlike those justification by law Christians. Rather we live as saved and eternally secure, believing the promise of God, despite our opposition insisting upon unbelief.
 
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So you're saying that a person can live in sin and not lose his salvation, as long it's not in some hypothetical "different category of sin". But that a person must live up to your "law" which you parse together with laws from the Moses and the sermon on the mount in order to be save. So have you perfectly, without fault, lived up to your "law"? Or did you lose your salvation? Did you love the Lord with all your heart, mind, soul and strength, or were there instances in which you only gave 90% and so lost your salvation. Might there have been violations that you committed, but you simply forgot or overlooked them?

Jesus said He came not to destroy the Law (Matthew 5:17). This means that He did not come to destroy the entirety of the whole of the Old altogether whereby the New Laws in the New Covenant would be entirely different in every way from the Old Law. Love God, and love your neighbor are still commands taught after the cross. Jesus obviously used these two laws from the Old Law. But Jesus taught that these new laws in a way that was never taught before. For example: Jesus tells us to love our enemies. This is something that did not exist in the OT before. In the OT Covenant (that is no more): Believers were to love their brothers who would be enemies, but they were not told to love enemy nations. They were commanded by God to destroy certain pagan nations. Today this is not the case under the New Covenant. We are to pray, do good, and love all people of all nations. So the command to love your neighbor from the OT has changed. Hebrews 7:12 says the Law has changed. Not sure your wanting to accept that truth within this verse.
 
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So you're saying that a person can live in sin and not lose his salvation, as long it's not in some hypothetical "different category of sin".

Well, your lack of awareness on a particular Biblical truth does not undo it.

Minor infractions or faults of character is another name for a "sin not unto death" (i.e. not unto death = not unto spiritual death or the second death) (Note: While the "sin not unto death" mentioned in 1 John 5:17 is in context to confessed sin in John's epistle (See: 1 John 1:9), it can be extended loosely to refer to the kind of sins that do not lead to spiritual death by it's very name).

"Who can understand his errors? cleanse thou me from secret faults."
(Psalms 19:12).​

Examples of Sins That Do Not Lead Unto Spiritual Death:

#1. 1 John 5:16-17 mentions the "sin not unto death."
In context to 1 John 5: This would be talking about confessed grievous sin that one is striving to overcome with the Lord's help (1 John 2:1) (1 John 1:9) (Romans 13:14). In 1 John 5, the brethren are praying for this believer to have victory (life) over their sin as this believer confesses their sin.

#2. Psalms 19:12 says, "Who can understand his errors? cleanse thou me from secret faults." I believe these would be faults of character or minor errors that a person might make with people. Example: A person may not be a great listener, and they do not allow others to speak like they should. By not listening to others may come off a little like they do not care (even though they care in their own way or a different way). Paul wanted to go to Jerusalem. The Spirit warned Paul not to go. He was still determined to go because he loved His fellow Jews and wanted them to know the love of Jesus. The Spirit told the brethren that Paul will be imprisoned by his going to Jerusalem. The brethren warned Paul not to go. They were in tears and loved him and begged him not to go. But Paul did not listen. He would not hear them. He did not want to hear it. Fault of character. Hidden fault. Minor error of his character. It is not something that condemned him (See Acts of the Apostles 21, and read this article here by Ray Stedman; Note: There is even a better write up than this one by Bible commentator James Boice here; Please keep in mind I do not share their views on Soteriology, though; I merely agree with their view on what happened with Paul in Acts of the Apostles 21).

#3. The Command to Be Baptized.
Paul says Christ sent him not to baptize but to preach the gospel (1 Corinthians 1:17). If it was essential to salvation, then why would Paul say something like this? In 1 Peter 3:21: Peter says baptism is not for the putting away of the filth of the flesh. If you were to turn to 2 Corinthians 7:1, you would see that it uses similar wording ("filthiness of the flesh") that is clearly in reference to sin. So Peter is saying that baptism is not for the putting away of "sin" [i.e. filth of the flesh]. In other words, baptism is not a command that if disobeyed, leads to spiritual death.

#4. Other Commands in the New Testament that do not seem like a major violation of loving God and loving your neighbor that have no death penalties attached to them. One example would be the command to Rejoice when men persecute you or falsely accuse you of evil in Matthew 5:11-12.

Real world examples: Going 5 miles per hour over the speed limit in area that is not life threatening to others. Not taking out the trash yesterday when it was a little stinky. These minor transgressions would obviously not send a Christian to hell.

But we as Christians strive to obey and do good in all things in the Lord. We strive to keep His commandments. For it is written,

"For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.' (1 John 5:3).​

You said:
But that a person must live up to your "law" which you parse together with laws from the Moses and the sermon on the mount in order to be save.

Okay. I reject your false accusation that it is "my law." You can read the Bible for yourself to find these laws. Anyways, Jesus made many changes within the Law by his teachings (even before the New Covenant officially began with His death). So this means Jesus was not always endorsing ALL of the Old ways or the Old Law. Jesus providing a New Law that sometimes aligned with the Old Law, like Love God, and love your neighbor. We can clearly see the command to love God, and love your neighbor is something that continued on after the cross (But it was also subtly different). Again, see 1 Corinthians 16:22, and 1 John 3:15 for examples of the continuation of Luke 10:25-28.

You said:
So have you perfectly, without fault, lived up to your "law"? Or did you lose your salvation?

If I commit a grievous sin and do not confess of it, then I am not saved. If I am ruled by a grievous sin, I need to work out my salvation with fear and trembling. For sin can harden a person's heart so as to depart from the living God (See Hebrews 3).

You said:
Did you love the Lord with all your heart, mind, soul and strength, or were there instances in which you only gave 90% and so lost your salvation.

You need to first understand the different aspects of loving God with all your heart, mind, soul, and strength to begin with. My guess is that you have no clue what each of those things mean according to Scripture. No doubt a Belief Alone in Jesus that secures your salvation has influenced your lack of not knowing such a truth. But can a person hold back their love for God, and love towards their neighbor? Meaning, can a person hate God by 10% and hate their neighbor by 10%? Surely not. Because what is the opposite of love? It is hate.

You said:
Might there have been violations that you committed, but you simply forgot or overlooked them

Believers have the Holy Spirit to convict them of sin. So they are not thrown to the wind to fend for themselves alone. They have God living in them to walk holy, and righteously with their standing upon the grace of Jesus Christ by faith.
 
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Those who have been born of God characteristically call sin for what it is. But what about you? Have you ever committed a sin? Did you lose your salvation when you committed a sin?

The problem is that who gets to decide what "characteristically sinning" means?
How often does a believer have to sin in order to be "characterized by sin"?
What if a believer plans to kill a person every 10 years? Will they be okay with God as long as they confess of it? Yet, imagine if they live holy and righteous in their church and they have a belief on Jesus alone for salvation. Would not this person not be characterized by sin because they only plan to kill every 10 years?
See, that is the problem with your belief that says that you will ALWAYS sin again at some point but it is just a little bit of sin every once in a while so it is okay. The problem is that if a person thinks they can get away with doing a little bit of sin every once in a while (i.e. not being characterized by sin), this can lead them to think they can sin all the time and be saved by having a belief on Jesus. For sin is deceptive. Once a person starts down that road of sin, they will be a slave to that sin. For Jesus says he that sins is a slave to sin (John 8:34). This is why Jesus told two people to "sin no more." (John 5:14) (John 8:11). The apostle John says for us to "sin not." But in your mind, you think that this is not possible. You believe that all believers will sin again as a matter of fact at some point. It just will not be as frequent?

But to answer your third question above. Yes, I believe I lose my salvation if I commit a grievous sin and I refuse to confess (repent) of it. Why? Because the Bible teaches this. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness (1 John 1:9). Also, see Proverbs 28:13. Jesus says that a person can be cast bodily into hell fire for looking at a woman in lust (Matthew 5:28-30). John teaches that if we hate our brother, no eternal life abides in us (1 John 3:15). Paul says that the Moral Law is the equivalent of loving your neighbor (Which would include to: Love your brother) (See Romans 13:8-10). Jesus Himself says if you will enter into life, keep the commandments (Matthew 19:17). You said this in your other thread:

"To those who are not prepared to hear the gospel of grace Paul and Jesus challenge them with justification by the law till they realize that they are not good enough to be saved. In fact in one instance it is written Now a certain ruler asked Him, saying, "Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?" So Jesus said to him, "Why do you call Me good? No one is good but One, that is, God." - Luke 18:18-19. The problem with this person, as it is with salvation-by-works Christians, is he thought he could be good enough to be saved. He didn't understand that his concept of "good" was not good enough. And so Jesus goes on to challenge him with the Law." ~ Bcbsr.

In Luke 18, or Matthew 19, Jesus is not telling the rich man that he is not good enough to be saved by the Law. Nowhere does Jesus even say this or hint at such a thing. If such a thing was the case, then Jesus's words would be a lie. Please. Read the end of Matthew 19. It is about forsaking things as a part of eternal life. Granted, Zacchaeus was just willing to give away half of his goods to the poor and yet Jesus told him salvation had come to his house that day (See Luke 19:1-10). So it is about forsaking things that we have and helping others. Anyways, the end of Matthew 19 is not the conclusion that it is futile to follow God's laws. That is your addition to the text that is not there.

Do you claim sinless perfection? Or do you simply fudge it claiming that you're allowed to commit certain sins without losing your salvation?

Again, I told you that I will not address the topic of Sinless Perfection in this section of the forums, because it is not permitted to discuss that here. Again, I will redirect you to the appropriate thread where it is allowed.

The Scriptures Teaching on Sinless Perfection.

But you are not listening. As I told you before, I do not believe Sinless Perfection is a salvation issue.
For have you never heard of the sin that does not lead unto death? (See 1 John 5:17).

You said:
Do you live up to the standards of your own law?

Again, it's not "my law" it is the Law of God in the New Covenant. But yes, I believe that if I do not live up to God's standard of holiness in the New Covenant, I am not going to make it. I am not above God's Word anymore than you are. However, I will let the Lord Jesus be my judge and not you.

You said:
"If a law had been given that could impart life, then righteousness would certainly have come by the law. But the Scripture declares that the whole world is a prisoner of sin, so that what was promised, being given through faith in Jesus Christ, might be given to those who believe." Gal 3:21,22

Well, actually this is saying that we are not saved by "Law Alone" without God's grace. No command in and of itself saves us. God's grace is what initially and ultimately saves. Again, Paul is trying to refute "Circumcision Salvationism" (or Law Alone without God's grace through faith). Paul is referring to "Law Alone Salvationism without God's grace through faith. Paul is not referring to obeying Jesus and His followers after we are saved by God's grace. He is referring to Works Alone Salvationism without God's grace via the Old Law. Circumcision is not a part of the commands in the New Covenant. Please read the context, and you will see Paul is talking about circumcision (See Galatians Galatians 2:3, and Galatians 5:2).

You said:
We who believe the gospel don't put our faith in our own performance to save us,

So you believe in Calvinism?
You believe that you did not have to act in receiving the gospel message?

You said:
unlike those justification by law Christians. Rather we live as saved and eternally secure, believing the promise of God, despite our opposition insisting upon unbelief.

James says in James 2:24 that we are justified by works and not by faith alone. This is not talking about being justified by works before men as many in your camp claim because if you are to believe that this is the case, then you have to also take the latter part of the verse as being justified by men, as well. Meaning, you are justified by faith in men, too. But surely you do not believe this. So you have to read James 2:24 in an inconsistent way. Well, maybe you have a different interpretation on this verse, but many in the OSAS camp believe James 2 is talking about being justified before men and not God.
 
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