You are correct. I did not read the forum rules for this forum. The thread here did not say at the top or give any indication that it was for an Orthodox only point of view. I looked for that when i first posted. I had to go back a layer to find that out. Threads like this should say what the rule said. Those in the Catholic only one states that in the threads. So I do apologize for this. This will be my last post here.
I do not apologize for recommending people to read the Bible. That is not breaking any of the posted rules above, nor am I debating.
I simply posted the quote in its full context, pointed out a few things & gave my opinion & understanding of how that compared to Scripture.
I have forgotten that those who are Orthodox use the LXX as their OT, a TRANSLATION FROM the original language of the OT, which is Hebrew & a few places of Aramaic. (As to the accuracy & authenticity of the history of the LXX, that would be another thread & topic & debate, which is forbidden here).
As to the orginal text of the OT, which was Hebrew (and in a few places Aramaic), 'eros' is not mentioned. I didn't make myself clear on this one. I do apologize. So I will look at how the Septuagint translation of the Hebrew uses the Greek word 'eros'
Proverbs 4:6 Brenton_Greek(i) 6 μηδὲ ἐγκαταλίπῃς αὐτὴν, καὶ ἀνθέξεταί σου· ἐράσθητι αὐτῆς, καὶ τηρήσει σε. English: And forsake it not & it shall cleave to thee: LOVE it & it shall keep thee.
Kata Biblon Wiki Lexicon - ἐράω - to say (v.)
SOME CONFUSION HERE: "ἤρατε" is from "αἴρω" (take/lift-up, Mk 8:19). But "ἐρῶ" is from "λέγω" (say/tell). "Loved" is only in LXX: Prv4:6, Est 2:17. Every other place this word is used in the Septuagint, it is not translated as loved. And here one is talking about a love for wisdom, personified as a 'she', not God. The other is referring to the love of a king for Esther, a woman, a she.
As the last website did an analysis, every other place this word is translated is as--lifted up or saying-- depending on the context. Yet why one may ask did the Septuagint translator deviate from all other examples in the OT (or NT) & instead translate the rare usage of this world as love & only 2 times?
It could easily be translated like every other place as lifting up wisdom or saying to it. And again in these two examples, none is used to describe God nor the Son nor the Holy Spirit but is used to refer to a 'she.'
For the Hebrew of the OT, the picture is quite different. With respect to words for love, it resembles our languages like English or German: there is one & only one word for love (the root ahav (he: אהב) with the noun ahava) which covers the concept as broadly as our modern word “love”. God’s love (Jr.31:3), love of God (Dt.6:5), love of the fellow man (Lv.19:18), love of a friend (2Sam.1:26), love of a girl (Gen.29:20), mere sex (Prov.7:18), love of money (Eccl.5:9), and love of vanity (Ps.4:3) are all called by the same name.
The LXX translates this Hebrew word of love 196 times in the OT as 'agape'--(except examples below & only one time as 'eros.') The Greek root agape for translating the Hebrew 'ahava' is translated with the following exceptions other than agape: 31 times philia, 15 times erastes (illicit lovers) & once eros (adulterous sex).
Prov 7:18 Brenton(i) 18 Come & let us enjoy love until the morning; come & let us embrace in love. Brenton_Greek(i) 18 Ἐλθὲ καὶ ἀπολαύσωμεν φιλίας ἕως ὄρθρου, δεῦρο καὶ ἐγκυλισθῶμεν ἔρωτι.
So again, out of 196 times the Hebrew word for love is translated in the LXX, only once out of those 196 is the word 'eros' used. (16X if you use illicit lovers)
And the one example of translating the Hebrew word for love as 'eros' above in the Septuagint is mentioning it as committing sexual adultery. This is what the primary aspect of the Greek word for 'eros' referred to & from which we get our word erotic from.
Eros comes from the mythological Greek god Eros & was the god of love, the god of sexual desire, physical attraction & physical love. Eros was thought to be the son of Aphrodite who was said to have interfered between the affairs of the gods & mankind causing the erotically mutual bonds of love at the sexually arousal level.
Again, this rare use of 'eros' in the LXX appears to have no reference concerning God but with desire for wisdom as a she or a king desiring a woman or for illicit sex, including adultery.
One would normally ask such a question because in the Song of Solomon's one would rationally think 'eros' would be used to describe the relationship of a husband to his wife. Yet in the 11 occurrences this word is found there, every time it is translated as agape. A even stronger case can be made if one sees it as an allegory concerning Christ & His bride, the church. Only agape is used.
So yes, if you subscribe to the presently accepted copy of the Septuagint translation of the original Hebrew among the many different Septuagint translations that were made, there are a few examples where 'eros' is used; but again not referring to God. If anyone can show me any from the OT, please do. And with that I am done.