Tutorman

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why is there Suffering? If God love us why is there children dying?

From CS Lewis:

Pain insists upon being attended to. God whispers to us in our pleasures, speaks in our consciences, but shouts in our pains. It is his megaphone to rouse a deaf world.
 
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Blade

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As some said.. this is sin.. this is what you get when GOD is taken out. But.. now ask.. so you PRAY? So many think GOD can just come in and do anything He likes.. He GOD right? He can never go against mans free will. Peter was locked up. Do you think GOD just thought.. hey? Thats not right.. I am going to send an angel down to set him free. NOPE! They were PRAYING for him. Not just a 1-15min prayer.

To really get this going.. do you ever really take in what happened? Peter knocks on the door.. no they didnt think it as Peter.. but Peters angel.. that was there 1st thought. NOT US TODAY! We changed.... talk about GIFTS... just in another thread.. hear some talk about ..nope there dead.. gone.

So.. when HE puts things on your heart..PRAY! He wants to act.. some will understand some will not. Praise GOD glory to Jesus
 
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Thir7ySev3n

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why is there Suffering? If God love us why is there children dying?

As an important prefacing note, this answer should be considered in conjunction with the previous responses that designate sin and human responsibility for that sin and its consequences. I do not seek to supplant those explanations, but rather supplement them with a Scriptural and logical explanation that explains why God created this world rather than any alternative with less evil. I also want you to understand that my answer to your question is derived from doctrines that are much deeper than is presented in this short space. To avoid presenting what would occupy chapters worth of writing elaborating every doctrine and defending every particular point in depth Biblically and logically (I actually have an abundance of material I have developed and documented on this issue over the course of many years), the following will consist of "entry-level" address to this issue. However, I hope it will be satisfactory in resolving this issue for you, and if you have any further questions or think any of the material to be doctrinally unsound, I will be happy to resolve those questions/contentions as well.

In creating a universe that would accommodate truly free moral agents, God would have a potentially infinite number of options available to Him with an equally potentially infinite amount of possible outcomes. From what we know about the nature of God, He would naturally choose to create the world which would produce the greatest possible outcome. What is the greatest possible outcome? There is none other than that world which provides the circumstances which leads the largest number of souls to freely accept the grace of God through the salvation provided in Jesus Christ (Acts 17:26-27, John 3:16, et al.; note: someone might object that the glory of God is the greatest good, and this is true; however, that alternative is a change without a difference since God's glory is God's character/nature, which is reflected in God's actions; Ezekiel 36:20-28). From what we know about God's nature, particularly that God is omni-benevolent (1 John 4:8, John 3:16), omniscient (Psalms 139:1-18, Isaiah 46:9-10) and omnipotent (Genesis 1:1, Jeremiah 32:17), this can be deductively inferred as follows:

1. Because God is omni-benevolent, He would desire to create the world which would produce the greatest potential good
2. Because God is omniscient, He would know which world would produce the greatest potential good
3. Because God is omnipotent, He would be able to create the world which would produce the greatest potential good

Therefore the world in which we exist is that which would produce the great potential good. To repeat, this greatest good is the largest number of souls that would freely surrender themselves to God and receive His grace. It would follow that, in a world of free creatures, the world which produces the great potential good does not contain any gratuitous evil, but only whatever evil is necessarily permitted in the course that results in the best possible outcome.

Again, God would have had a potentially infinite number of options present of worlds to create with an equally infinite number of possible outcomes. By His perfect nature, however, God would not create a world at random in which His will to create concurrently free and absolutely loved creatures was not accomplished. So God would have to "narrow His options" (interjection: understand that as the Bible employs anthropomorphic language to render God to be intelligible to us, so must I employ such language in some cases; keep this in mind as I continue) to feasible worlds which accommodate creaturely freedom and yet lovingly provides the circumstances that permits each person who would freely choose God to do so. Knowing God, once He had narrowed the options to the assortment of great results, He would naturally choose the greatest of these possible outcomes. This is not to say God is predestining our decisions, but the creation of the world which would provide the social, environmental and personal circumstances that are necessary for each individual, in their own times and places as God foreknew, to interact with each other, their environment and God in a way that corresponds to their psychology/personality, ultimately and inevitably leading to the salvation of those who would freely respond affirmatively to God's grace in whatever circumstance they find themselves. In this sense, then, God can literally be said to have elected those who are saved (Mark 13:20, Romans 11:7), though their choices as well as those who reject God are entirely free (Matthew 23:37, Joshua 24:15, 1 Kings 18:21).

As is stated in Acts 17, God placed us within our context because He knew that if given that context we would freely choose to accept Him by the testimony and in-dwelling of the Holy Spirit. It could then be rightly asked "well then could God have not provided a precise set of circumstances that would be those which are necessary to win the soul of every person?", and the answer would be no. For some people, there is no such set of circumstances that would be sufficient for them to freely receive the salvation of Christ by the Holy Spirit's testimony. This is affirmed doubly in the Scriptures. First, in Daniel 12:10 concerning the course through to the end times Jesus says: "Many will be purified, made spotless and refined, but the wicked will continue to be wicked. None of the wicked will understand, but those who are wise will understand." Again, concerning God's providence Paul says in Romans 9:22: "What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?"

It may also seem confusing to think that God has among His human creation "objects of wrath" which He prepares for destruction, until you comprehend these points and Scriptures collectively. There are some souls which God would create that will freely reject Him under any and all circumstances, but are still necessary in the grand scheme of world history to play a role in drawing all those who will be freely saved into that salvation. God Himself illustrates this wonderfully in His statement to Pharaoh in Exodus 9:15-16: "For by now I could have stretched out my hand and struck you and your people with a plague that would have wiped you off the earth. But I have raised you up for this very purpose, that I might show you my power and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth."

See Acts 17:26-27, Genesis 50:20, Jeremiah 25:8-14 and Judges 14:4 for more Scriptural examples on the providence of God and how it works.

In conclusion, it is important to note that God is perfectly just and shows no partiality (Deuteronomy 10:7, 2 Chronicles 19:7), and these attributes would necessarily inform His creative decree in which world to actualize. No person is favoured, whether man or woman, rich or poor, slave or free, great or small (Galatians 3:28). Thus we can be certain that if God selects the specific times and places of every individual for the explicit purpose of preparing them to receive the salvation that is in Christ, it follows that all who extend beyond the means of receiving that salvation on account of their place or time are not victims of misfortune, but are those whom God foreknew would freely reject that salvation. Their existence then serves to play a role, indiscernible to us, in world history in maximizing the number of souls who would freely come to Christ on account of the unfolding effects and ripples of their lives.

Thus there is no gratuitous evil, but only that which is necessary for the revelation of God's glory in salvation to responsible moral agents. Everything manifested in this world in the form of moral and natural evils may not have particular explanations for every event (and such an explanation may actually serve to thwart the aforementioned purpose; think for example of God revealing "I am just testing you to see if you would love and trust me" occurring prior to God's testing of Abraham in Genesis 22 rather than after) but we can understand the ultimate purpose of God in permitting evils because the Scripture has revealed it (Acts 17:26-27, Romans 8:28, Ephesians 3:1-12).
 
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Saint JOHN

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basically most do NOT want God !! there is only 2 players in this game of life ; so who do you think is into sickness, death, suffering etc; so who do man stay with and give there will to.. or on the other hand love peace joy everlasting life etc...!! its quite simple..even many who " think they are a believer " are still in repentance mode...

17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
18 They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.

do it his way and..see above its automatic...and the adversary will let you worship or think up anything other than Gods way and so you stay in the enemy camp...and think up anything other than his way.

1Co 7:14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.

37 ¶ Now when they heard [this], they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men [and] brethren, what shall we do?
38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
39 For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, [even] as many as the Lord our God shall call.
40 And with many other words did he testify and exhort, saying, Save yourselves from this untoward generation.

if they were bad news then we have not gotten any sweeter with time !
God does not want this..man chooses..

Lu 13:3 I tell you, Nay: but, except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish.
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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Lu 13:3 I tell you, Nay: but, except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish.
..... the tower falls on many .... even God's people - "for lack of knowledge (experiential knowledge - experiencing union with Yahushua (healing, salvation, daily life-union) ) , MY PEOPLE PERISH" ....
 
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bling

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As an important prefacing note, this answer should be considered in conjunction with the previous responses that designate sin and human responsibility for that sin and its consequences. I do not seek to supplant those explanations, but rather supplement them with a Scriptural and logical explanation that explains why God created this world rather than any alternative with less evil. I also want you to understand that my answer to your question is derived from doctrines that are much deeper than is presented in this short space. To avoid presenting what would occupy chapters worth of writing elaborating every doctrine and defending every particular point in depth Biblically and logically (I actually have an abundance of material I have developed and documented on this issue over the course of many years), the following will consist of "entry-level" address to this issue. However, I hope it will be satisfactory in resolving this issue for you, and if you have any further questions or think any of the material to be doctrinally unsound, I will be happy to resolve those questions/contentions as well.

In creating a universe that would accommodate truly free moral agents, God would have a potentially infinite number of options available to Him with an equally potentially infinite amount of possible outcomes. From what we know about the nature of God, He would naturally choose to create the world which would produce the greatest possible outcome. What is the greatest possible outcome? There is none other than that world which provides the circumstances which leads the largest number of souls to freely accept the grace of God through the salvation provided in Jesus Christ (Acts 17:26-27, John 3:16, et al.; note: someone might object that the glory of God is the greatest good, and this is true; however, that alternative is a change without a difference since God's glory is God's character/nature, which is reflected in God's actions; Ezekiel 36:20-28). From what we know about God's nature, particularly that God is omni-benevolent (1 John 4:8, John 3:16), omniscient (Psalms 139:1-18, Isaiah 46:9-10) and omnipotent (Genesis 1:1, Jeremiah 32:17), this can be deductively inferred as follows:

1. Because God is omni-benevolent, He would desire to create the world which would produce the greatest potential good
2. Because God is omniscient, He would know which world would produce the greatest potential good
3. Because God is omnipotent, He would be able to create the world which would produce the greatest potential good

Therefore the world in which we exist is that which would produce the great potential good. To repeat, this greatest good is the largest number of souls that would freely surrender themselves to God and receive His grace. It would follow that, in a world of free creatures, the world which produces the great potential good does not contain any gratuitous evil, but only whatever evil is necessarily permitted in the course that results in the best possible outcome.

Again, God would have had a potentially infinite number of options present of worlds to create with an equally infinite number of possible outcomes. By His perfect nature, however, God would not create a world at random in which His will to create concurrently free and absolutely loved creatures was not accomplished. So God would have to "narrow His options" (interjection: understand that as the Bible employs anthropomorphic language to render God to be intelligible to us, so must I employ such language in some cases; keep this in mind as I continue) to feasible worlds which accommodate creaturely freedom and yet lovingly provides the circumstances that permits each person who would freely choose God to do so. Knowing God, once He had narrowed the options to the assortment of great results, He would naturally choose the greatest of these possible outcomes. This is not to say God is predestining our decisions, but the creation of the world which would provide the social, environmental and personal circumstances that are necessary for each individual, in their own times and places as God foreknew, to interact with each other, their environment and God in a way that corresponds to their psychology/personality, ultimately and inevitably leading to the salvation of those who would freely respond affirmatively to God's grace in whatever circumstance they find themselves. In this sense, then, God can literally be said to have elected those who are saved (Mark 13:20, Romans 11:7), though their choices as well as those who reject God are entirely free (Matthew 23:37, Joshua 24:15, 1 Kings 18:21).

As is stated in Acts 17, God placed us within our context because He knew that if given that context we would freely choose to accept Him by the testimony and in-dwelling of the Holy Spirit. It could then be rightly asked "well then could God have not provided a precise set of circumstances that would be those which are necessary to win the soul of every person?", and the answer would be no. For some people, there is no such set of circumstances that would be sufficient for them to freely receive the salvation of Christ by the Holy Spirit's testimony. This is affirmed doubly in the Scriptures. First, in Daniel 12:10 concerning the course through to the end times Jesus says: "Many will be purified, made spotless and refined, but the wicked will continue to be wicked. None of the wicked will understand, but those who are wise will understand." Again, concerning God's providence Paul says in Romans 9:22: "What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?"

It may also seem confusing to think that God has among His human creation "objects of wrath" which He prepares for destruction, until you comprehend these points and Scriptures collectively. There are some souls which God would create that will freely reject Him under any and all circumstances, but are still necessary in the grand scheme of world history to play a role in drawing all those who will be freely saved into that salvation. God Himself illustrates this wonderfully in His statement to Pharaoh in Exodus 9:15-16: "For by now I could have stretched out my hand and struck you and your people with a plague that would have wiped you off the earth. But I have raised you up for this very purpose, that I might show you my power and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth."

See Acts 17:26-27, Genesis 50:20, Jeremiah 25:8-14 and Judges 14:4 for more Scriptural examples on the providence of God and how it works.

In conclusion, it is important to note that God is perfectly just and shows no partiality (Deuteronomy 10:7, 2 Chronicles 19:7), and these attributes would necessarily inform His creative decree in which world to actualize. No person is favoured, whether man or woman, rich or poor, slave or free, great or small (Galatians 3:28). Thus we can be certain that if God selects the specific times and places of every individual for the explicit purpose of preparing them to receive the salvation that is in Christ, it follows that all who extend beyond the means of receiving that salvation on account of their place or time are not victims of misfortune, but are those whom God foreknew would freely reject that salvation. Their existence then serves to play a role, indiscernible to us, in world history in maximizing the number of souls who would freely come to Christ on account of the unfolding effects and ripples of their lives.

Thus there is no gratuitous evil, but only that which is necessary for the revelation of God's glory in salvation to responsible moral agents. Everything manifested in this world in the form of moral and natural evils may not have particular explanations for every event (and such an explanation may actually serve to thwart the aforementioned purpose; think for example of God revealing "I am just testing you to see if you would love and trust me" occurring prior to God's testing of Abraham in Genesis 22 rather than after) but we can understand the ultimate purpose of God in permitting evils because the Scripture has revealed it (Acts 17:26-27, Romans 8:28, Ephesians 3:1-12).
I am OK with “…create the world which would produce the greatest possible outcome”, but think it better expressed as God is doing and/or allowing everything possible to help willing humans fulfill their earthly objective. That everything includes satan roaming the earth, Christ going to the cross, death, tragedies of all kinds, hell, evil and sin.

Also, “to freely accept the grace of God” sounds like (but would not have to) sinful man can do something noble, righteous, holy and/or worthy, so I prefer to say the choice is: “The sinful unbeliever just has to humbly accept God’s pure sacrificial charity”. But charity can equal grace, so it could be the same.

The objective would drive everything so what is man’s objective?

I might begin with:



1. There are just somethings, that are impossible to do, so even God cannot do them, as an example: It is impossible to create a being which has always existed (was never created), so it is impossible to create another Jesus who has always existed.

2. It is impossible to create a being who instinctively has Godly type Love, since an instinctive love is a programmed into the being love which makes it robotic and nothing like God’s Love. This Love also could not just be “forced” on a being like a shotgun wedding with God holding the shotgun since that would not be Loving on God’s part nor would the “love” obtained be Godly type Love. This Love has to be the result of a free will choice by the obtainer of the Love, which God makes extremely simple and easy to obtain, just by accepting His Love as pure unconditional, undeserved charity (which it is and to except it as something else is not accepting it at all). Again, for it not to be forced on the person the person has to have at least one likely alternative which for man is the perceived pleasures of sin for a season.

3. The only way we have been taught, seen and experienced initially obtain Godly type Love in ourselves (it can grow with use after it is first obtained) is by “...he which is forgiven much Loves much…”. If you have truly understood and accepted God’s forgiveness of an unbelievable huge debt (created by sin) then you will automatically receive an unbelievable huge Love (Godly type Love).

I am short on time right now but respond if you would like to go further, also your explanation of Ro. 9 needs further consideration, which I can provide.
 
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Thir7ySev3n

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I am OK with “…create the world which would produce the greatest possible outcome”, but think it better expressed as God is doing and/or allowing everything possible to help willing humans fulfill their earthly objective. That everything includes satan roaming the earth, Christ going to the cross, death, tragedies of all kinds, hell, evil and sin.

Also, “to freely accept the grace of God” sounds like (but would not have to) sinful man can do something noble, righteous, holy and/or worthy, so I prefer to say the choice is: “The sinful unbeliever just has to humbly accept God’s pure sacrificial charity”. But charity can equal grace, so it could be the same.

The objective would drive everything so what is man’s objective?

I might begin with:



1. There are just somethings, that are impossible to do, so even God cannot do them, as an example: It is impossible to create a being which has always existed (was never created), so it is impossible to create another Jesus who has always existed.

2. It is impossible to create a being who instinctively has Godly type Love, since an instinctive love is a programmed into the being love which makes it robotic and nothing like God’s Love. This Love also could not just be “forced” on a being like a shotgun wedding with God holding the shotgun since that would not be Loving on God’s part nor would the “love” obtained be Godly type Love. This Love has to be the result of a free will choice by the obtainer of the Love, which God makes extremely simple and easy to obtain, just by accepting His Love as pure unconditional, undeserved charity (which it is and to except it as something else is not accepting it at all). Again, for it not to be forced on the person the person has to have at least one likely alternative which for man is the perceived pleasures of sin for a season.

3. The only way we have been taught, seen and experienced initially obtain Godly type Love in ourselves (it can grow with use after it is first obtained) is by “...he which is forgiven much Loves much…”. If you have truly understood and accepted God’s forgiveness of an unbelievable huge debt (created by sin) then you will automatically receive an unbelievable huge Love (Godly type Love).

I am short on time right now but respond if you would like to go further, also your explanation of Ro. 9 needs further consideration, which I can provide.

God is not seeking to fulfill man's objective, but His own. The only time man's objective matters to God is when it is to fulfill God's objective. All other objectives are sin and idolatry. I don't think the Scriptures can make that any more clear. And God's objective, as explicated in the Scriptures provided and a plethora of others (no point has every relevant Scripture attached to it or it would overwhelm the content; but the provided Scriptures are clear enough I would think) is to bring man into a saving relationship with God for His glory. If you agree with this and mean "man's objective" as being what God intends for man to do, then your statement is a redundancy and is a change without a difference and an assent disguised as an objection.

(Foreword on this paragraph: It seems you may agree with the following, so this is intended as a brief clarification of my position) Man freely accepts God's salvation as enabled by the Holy Spirit's conviction when presented the Gospel (John 16:8-11). However, though enabled, man is able to reject the invitation and resist the Holy Spirit (Acts 7:51, Matthew 23:37, et al., as previously presented). Therefore man's acceptance is not a demonstration of a good deed but rather the reception of the provision of a good God upon believing the convicting work of the Holy Spirit. This is no more praiseworthy than a man on the edge of a cliff reaching back to a hand that can save him from falling. This does not require anything more than recognizing what God gives us sufficient reason to believe, enables us to believe, and a desire to not perish. Hence why fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom and why God appeals to our fear of Him and the sinner's desire to live (Ezekiel 18:31-32), later growing us in love in sanctification.

I agree with the points you listed as 1-3. I am uncertain whether you intended this as complimentary or corrective, though it doesn't dispute anything I have written.

Your closing statement is why I emphasized at the beginning of my response that the answer would be abbreviated for the sake of space (as I have written dozens of pages on the biblical doctrines and logical arguments in ministering those doctrines for this topic). For every point you see in this post I have prepared answers for common and uncommon objections to the premises of the premises of the premises. The shortness of this article was intended as a kindness to the reader who is interested in a basic and (potentially) satisfying answer, rather than being presented answers to questions about questions that they didn't have. If any further questions were asked, the answers were already prepared to any question/objection I have heard over the years (even some answers prepared to questions/objections that have never been presented but may be in the future). Also, Romans 9 is probably one of my most studied chapters in the Bible (as well as its surrounding context) due to my incessant encounter with calvinist Christians. But as aforementioned, this answer was significantly abbreviated from my comprehensive answer to this question and everything the answer itself entails.
 
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bling

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God is not seeking to fulfill man's objective, but His own. The only time man's objective matters to God is when it is to fulfill God's objective. All other objectives are sin and idolatry. I don't think the Scriptures can make that any more clear. And God's objective, as explicated in the Scriptures provided and a plethora of others (no point has every relevant Scripture attached to it or it would overwhelm the content; but the provided Scriptures are clear enough I would think) is to bring man into a saving relationship with God for His glory. If you agree with this and mean "man's objective" as being what God intends for man to do, then your statement is a redundancy and is a change without a difference and an assent disguised as an objection.
First off: God cannot “fulfill man’s objective”, since it is man’s objective and not His.

God being Love, means He is the epitome of unselfishness (Love), so how important would it be to God to “help” humans with their objective, (To become like God Himself, in that they have Godly type Love.)

Could there be any greater demonstration of God’s willingness to do all He can to help humans fulfill their objective, than with the cross and that help is His greatest glory?

God does not need “help” fulfill God’s objective, but man needs lots of help trying to fulfill man’s objective.

God is always glorious no matter what man does, so God does not have to be in relationship with humans to be glorious. The father in the prodigal son story was fully glorious no matter if the prodigal son returned or did not return and no matter what the older son does. Why do you say “bring man into a saving relationship with God for His glory, since He is glorious without man doing anything?

Both scripture and all the world around us shows God is doing all He can or allow to happen to help willing individuals fulfill their objective.

Is this the God you worship?
(Foreword on this paragraph: It seems you may agree with the following, so this is intended as a brief clarification of my position) Man freely accepts God's salvation as enabled by the Holy Spirit's conviction when presented the Gospel (John 16:8-11). However, though enabled, man is able to reject the invitation and resist the Holy Spirit (Acts 7:51, Matthew 23:37, et al., as previously presented). Therefore man's acceptance is not a demonstration of a good deed but rather the reception of the provision of a good God upon believing the convicting work of the Holy Spirit. This is no more praiseworthy than a man on the edge of a cliff reaching back to a hand that can save him from falling. This does not require anything more than recognizing what God gives us sufficient reason to believe, enables us to believe, and a desire to not perish. Hence why fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom and why God appeals to our fear of Him and the sinner's desire to live (Ezekiel 18:31-32), later growing us in love in sanctification.
OK
I agree with the points you listed as 1-3. I am uncertain whether you intended this as complimentary or corrective, though it doesn't dispute anything I have written.
OK
Your closing statement is why I emphasized at the beginning of my response that the answer would be abbreviated for the sake of space (as I have written dozens of pages on the biblical doctrines and logical arguments in ministering those doctrines for this topic). For every point you see in this post I have prepared answers for common and uncommon objections to the premises of the premises of the premises. The shortness of this article was intended as a kindness to the reader who is interested in a basic and (potentially) satisfying answer, rather than being presented answers to questions about questions that they didn't have. If any further questions were asked, the answers were already prepared to any question/objection I have heard over the years (even some answers prepared to questions/objections that have never been presented but may be in the future). Also, Romans 9 is probably one of my most studied chapters in the Bible (as well as its surrounding context) due to my incessant encounter with calvinist Christians. But as aforementioned, this answer was significantly abbreviated from my comprehensive answer to this question and everything the answer itself entails.
I have frequently taught Romans and spent lots of time in Romans 9.

I like to teach by just asking questions but will give you a brief interpretation:

Romans 9

Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.



The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!



This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).



Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?



If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?



This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.



Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”



Who is the “one of you” is this Jewish Christian (elect) or Gentile Christian (elect) or is this “non-elect” individual (this “letter” is written to Christians and not non-Christians)?



Can Jews say they cannot be blamed for failing in their honored position or would it be the Gentiles that would say they cannot be blamed since they were not in the honored position?



Is it really significant when it comes to what really counts, if you are born a gentile or Jew in first century Rome?



Are there issues and problems with being a first century Jew and was this a problem for Paul?



The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).



How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.



Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.



Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!



The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.



If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.

Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?

This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.

That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.
 
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Thir7ySev3n

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First off: God cannot “fulfill man’s objective”, since it is man’s objective and not His.

God being Love, means He is the epitome of unselfishness (Love), so how important would it be to God to “help” humans with their objective, (To become like God Himself, in that they have Godly type Love.)

Could there be any greater demonstration of God’s willingness to do all He can to help humans fulfill their objective, than with the cross and that help is His greatest glory?

God does not need “help” fulfill God’s objective, but man needs lots of help trying to fulfill man’s objective.

God is always glorious no matter what man does, so God does not have to be in relationship with humans to be glorious. The father in the prodigal son story was fully glorious no matter if the prodigal son returned or did not return and no matter what the older son does. Why do you say “bring man into a saving relationship with God for His glory, since He is glorious without man doing anything?

Both scripture and all the world around us shows God is doing all He can or allow to happen to help willing individuals fulfill their objective.

Is this the God you worship?

OK

OK

I have frequently taught Romans and spent lots of time in Romans 9.

I like to teach by just asking questions but will give you a brief interpretation:

Romans 9

Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.



The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!



This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).



Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?



If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?



This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.



Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”



Who is the “one of you” is this Jewish Christian (elect) or Gentile Christian (elect) or is this “non-elect” individual (this “letter” is written to Christians and not non-Christians)?



Can Jews say they cannot be blamed for failing in their honored position or would it be the Gentiles that would say they cannot be blamed since they were not in the honored position?



Is it really significant when it comes to what really counts, if you are born a gentile or Jew in first century Rome?



Are there issues and problems with being a first century Jew and was this a problem for Paul?



The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).



How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.



Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.



Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!



The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.



If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.

Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?

This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.

That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.

Your introductory statement is strange, considering there are a plethora of examples of one being able to fulfill another's objective. I could desire to eat and someone else make my food. Someone could desire to reach a destination and another drive them. You could desire to get well and a doctor be the one who treats you, etc.. Any task you desire accomplished that you send another to fulfill and they succeed is an example of someone else accomplishing another's objective. If man desired to be saved and God saves Him, God fulfilled the man's objective. However, that wasn't even my point. The point you responded with this odd notion to was that God is fulfilling His own objective, and commands man to be in accord with it (Luke 19:10 + Matthew 28:18-20, Matthew 12:30, et al.) MAn's objective apart from it being God's is sin and idolatry, as man is not good and does not seek God or the things of God until he is aligned with God's objective by the Holy Spirit (Psalms 14:2-3). Hence, he is made to fulfill God's objective, which is represented by His various commands that are irrespective of human desires, plans or ambitions.

This question betrays your lack of apprehension of what you are responding to:

"Why do you say “bring man into a saving relationship with God for His glory, since He is glorious without man doing anything?"

The answer was explicitly provided before you asked the question. God is glorious, but man must come to know that glory. God's objective is for man to know His glory, and He is immensely concerned that man perceive this glory, hence the Scripture that I had already provided:

Notice God's displeasure with the nations not perceiving His glory: "But when they came to the nations, wherever they came, they profaned my holy name, in that people said of them, ‘These are the people of the LORD, and yet they had to go out of his land.’ But I had concern for my holy name, which the house of Israel had profaned among the nations to which they came." (Ezekiel 36:20-21; see Exodus 32:10-14 for another such example).

Notice God's glory is the highest good, and for that sake God acts: "Therefore say to the house of Israel, Thus says the Lord GOD: It is not for your sake, O house of Israel, that I am about to act, but for the sake of my holy name, which you have profaned among the nations to which you came. And I will vindicate the holiness of my great name, which has been profaned among the nations, and which you have profaned among them. And the nations will know that I am the LORD, declares the Lord GOD, when through you I vindicate my holiness before their eyes." (Ezekiel 36:22-23)

Now notice God's declaration that He demonstrates His glory in salvation: "I will take you from the nations and gather you from all the countries and bring you into your own land. I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you shall be clean from all your uncleannesses, and from all your idols I will cleanse you. And I will give you a new heart, and a new spirit I will put within you. And I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh. And I will put my Spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes and be careful to obey my rules." (Ezekiel 36:24-27)

Let's combine these points to see where I partly inferred my argument from:

1. God is glorious but can be not perceived as such.
2. God's glory is the highest good.
3. Therefore, God seeks to demonstrate His glory, which is revealed in salvation.

This may sound familiar, almost like something you have read recently in this topic.

Your last section on Romans 9 I didn't read because you were already informed that I am studied on Romans 9 and there was no purpose to attempting to educate me on it except vanity.
 
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bling

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Your introductory statement is strange, considering there are a plethora of examples of one being able to fulfill another's objective. I could desire to eat and someone else make my food. Someone could desire to reach a destination and another drive them. You could desire to get well and a doctor be the one who treats you, etc.. Any task you desire accomplished that you send another to fulfill and they succeed is an example of someone else accomplishing another's objective. If man desired to be saved and God saves Him, God fulfilled the man's objective. However, that wasn't even my point. The point you responded with this odd notion to was that God is fulfilling His own objective, and commands man to be in accord with it (Luke 19:10 + Matthew 28:18-20, Matthew 12:30, et al.) MAn's objective apart from it being God's is sin and idolatry, as man is not good and does not seek God or the things of God until he is aligned with God's objective by the Holy Spirit (Psalms 14:2-3). Hence, he is made to fulfill God's objective, which is represented by His various commands that are irrespective of human desires, plans or ambitions.
One problem is: You can take any command or request from God and say: “This is man’s objective” and have Biblical support to show it as man’s objective. So, we have to define the “Mission Statement” which will drive all commands.

The “Mission Statement” appears to be something like: Love God and secondly others with all your heart, soul, mind and energy. That type of all-consuming, totally selfless Love is way beyond anything instinctive, taught, learned, developed, earned, or paid back for.

Humans are not “born” instinctively with this Love (that would make it robotic), so it must first be obtained and afterwards with use it will grow. So, like you said, mature adults start out sinning and selfish, but that condition can help some to eventually obtain Godly type Love. The only way I see in scripture for initially obtaining Godly type Love is by what Jesus taught us (Luke 7) “…he who is forgiven much Loves much…” so if the person understands how bad sin is and humbly accepts as pure charity God’s forgiveness of the unbelievable huge debt, that person will automatically obtain an unbelievable huge Love (Godly type Love). But as you can see the unbeliever needs (and will) create this huge debt by sinning.

The unbelieving sinner does not naturally want to be in a place where there is only unselfish type Love and to become selfless (heaven), so giving him/her a deed to a heavenly home is not what they desire (they would not be happy there, since they have refused God’s Charity already.)

Again, God cannot force His Love on you (fulfill the objective for you) since that would be like a shotgun wedding with God holding the shotgun. The love you got would not be Godly type Love and the Love God is showing is not Godly type Love.
This question betrays your lack of apprehension of what you are responding to:

"Why do you say “bring man into a saving relationship with God for His glory, since He is glorious without man doing anything?"

The answer was explicitly provided before you asked the question. God is glorious, but man must come to know that glory. God's objective is for man to know His glory, and He is immensely concerned that man perceive this glory, hence the Scripture that I had already provided:

Notice God's displeasure with the nations not perceiving His glory: "But when they came to the nations, wherever they came, they profaned my holy name, in that people said of them, ‘These are the people of the LORD, and yet they had to go out of his land.’ But I had concern for my holy name, which the house of Israel had profaned among the nations to which they came." (Ezekiel 36:20-21; see Exodus 32:10-14 for another such example).

Notice God's glory is the highest good, and for that sake God acts: "Therefore say to the house of Israel, Thus says the Lord GOD: It is not for your sake, O house of Israel, that I am about to act, but for the sake of my holy name, which you have profaned among the nations to which you came. And I will vindicate the holiness of my great name, which has been profaned among the nations, and which you have profaned among them. And the nations will know that I am the LORD, declares the Lord GOD, when through you I vindicate my holiness before their eyes." (Ezekiel 36:22-23)

Now notice God's declaration that He demonstrates His glory in salvation: "I will take you from the nations and gather you from all the countries and bring you into your own land. I will sprinkle clean water on you, and you shall be clean from all your uncleannesses, and from all your idols I will cleanse you. And I will give you a new heart, and a new spirit I will put within you. And I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh. And I will put my Spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes and be careful to obey my rules." (Ezekiel 36:24-27)

Let's combine these points to see where I partly inferred my argument from:

1. God is glorious but can be not perceived as such.
2. God's glory is the highest good.
3. Therefore, God seeks to demonstrate His glory, which is revealed in salvation.

This may sound familiar, almost like something you have read recently in this topic.
During the time of Ezekiel the Jews were not showing God’s glory to the nations around them, but we have to figure out why that is so important?

You are suggesting the importance is with God wanting glory and praise for Himself, why I see the importance of the Jews being the help to the world they were suppose to be, as being a means to draw the nations around the Jews to salvation with God. The Jews being wicket would not help the other nations see who God really is and want to learn more about Him.

God’s “Glory” is found in His Love with the greatest being seen with the cross, but Perfect Love would be total unselfishness toward those being Loved (helping them), which the cross does. The main help we need is in fulfilling our earthly objective.
Your last section on Romans 9 I didn't read because you were already informed that I am studied on Romans 9 and there was no purpose to attempting to educate me on it except vanity.
We have differences in our understanding of Ro. 9 so if you could help me with my understanding that would be good for me.
 
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