No, Paul says that he taught it in every church - though there is no mention of it in any letter except 1 Corinthians.
First of all, Paul did not need to write the exact same things to every church because the letters were for all the churches everywhere and Jesus Christ the same yesterday, today and forever. His truth is the same in all the churches then and today, or else that would cause confusion. God is not the author of confusion.
Secondly, some churches did not have a problem in the same areas so he addressed what issues they had.
Thirdly, Paul did discuss woman’s issues in other letters. We see Paul addressing a similar issue as the Corinthians in 1 Timothy when he told Timothy (an apostolic worker setting things in order) that a woman should not teach or usurp authority over the man. Paul said this “in Christ” as he spoke. Even if he said “I suffer not a woman to teach”, he is saying this in the new creation in Christ. The “I” refers to the new man in Christ.
Also we see Paul addressing women issues to the church of Ephesus when he said,
Ephesians 5:22. Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord.23. For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.24. Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing.”
And to the Colossians church The issue is also mentioned where Paul said,
Colossians 3:18. Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as it is fit in the Lord.”
And even Peter dealt with the woman issue and the seriousness of it when he said,
1 Peter 3:1. Likewise, ye wives, be in subjection to your own husbands; that, if any obey not the word, they also may without the word be won by the conversation of the wives;2. While they behold your chaste conversation coupled with fear.3. Whose adorning let it not be that outward adorning of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel;4. But let it be the hidden man of the heart, in that which is not corruptible, even the ornament of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price.5. For after this manner in the old time the holy women also, who trusted in God, adorned themselves, being in subjection unto their own husbands:6. Even as Sara obeyed Abraham, calling him lord: whose daughters ye are, as long as ye do well, and are not afraid with any amazement.7. Likewise, ye husbands, dwell with them according to knowledge, giving honour unto the wife, as unto the weaker vessel, and as being heirs together of the grace of life; that your prayers be not hindered.”
He certainly didn't write it to the Romans; instead he wrote a list of, and commended, the women who had worked with him, for the Gospel. One of these was a deacon, one was outstanding among the apostles, another hosted church gatherings in their house and, we are told elsewhere, taught an apostle. Yes, she did this alongside her husband; but if women can't teach, they can't teach. Otherwise you are saying that husband and wife clergy teams are fine and a woman CAN be ordained/ if her husband is with her.
Women are not called “deacons” in the bible in the same context as men. Only men can be bishops and deacons as we read in 1 Timothy 3. The husband (men) of one wife. It does not read the wife (woman) of one man.
Also the word used in THE bible (KJV) is “servant”, not deacon as an office.
the verse that speaks of Women being of “note” or noteworthy among the apostles. Does not mean they were apostles. They simply were noted and recognized among the apostles when they recognized them in their service.
Also Lydia simply opened her house to use for meetings when she met Paul. She was not an overseer or teacher over men.
Aquila and Pricilla shared their faith and the way more perfectly with Apollo’s. This is not in a church meeting but evangelism and Pricilla would have still been in submission to her husband. The word used there was not “taught” or “teach” but they both “expounded”, meaning to expose or declare more fully. This is a different word in Greek from “taught” or teach” as you subtly try to impose here (Katecheo in Greek)
Yes, he wrote it to all his churches.
I asked "where does it say that this applies to the churches TODAY - 2000 years later in a different culture?.
The holy scriptures that Paul wrote “by the Lord Jesus”, were for all believers everywhere in every place. The truth of God does not change and Jesus Christ is the same yesterday, today and forever.
1 Corinthians 1:2. Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both theirs and ours:”
Do any call upon the name of the Lord today? Yes, so it is for them as well and applies to all believers everywhere.
If a person follows your line of thinking then they might say that the entire Bible is for no one today. But that would be very wrong.
IT seems that when some groups and people are corrected by scripture, they simply try to eliminate it by applying to it a cultural context or an ancient tone that relates to no one today. But this is not right or the way we are to see scripture.
Paul wanted this for all believers everywhere.
1 Corinthians 1:10. Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.”
And
Hebrews 13:8. Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.”
Paul, like others, expected Jesus to return in his lifetime and didn't know there would be a church even 100 years later - so how could he address churches and cultures that he didn't know would exist?
It would have been simple enough to write the phrase "and any churches that may exist in the future, no matter how much times, and cultures, change" - but he didn't.
How do you know what Paul saw in the future and if he was aware of?
Paul spoke of later times showing that he was aware of future times for the church
1 Timothy 4:1. Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils;”
Paul also said,
2 Thessalonians 2:2. That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.3. Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;”
This WASN'T a command given by Jesus, that's my point.
Jesus was God incarnate. He told, and showed, us what God is like and taught his will. Nowhere in the Gospels does Jesus say, "and regarding the church that I will build; don't let women lead it or even preach in it."
Why do you try to manipulate the discussion by saying “Nowhere in the gospels”? You seem to miss or deliberately ignore the FACT that Jesus Christ was in Paul speaking his commandments to the church for them to walk in. As scripture clearly shows in many places. Paul wrote scripture by the Spirit.
Also while Jesus was in Earth he called 12 men, apostles, to oversee and teach all nations. Never women.
But we have Jesus commands to the church through men like Paul, Peter, John, and other men.
It may well have been God's command that women, who were asking questions during a service instead of waiting to ask their own husbands at home, should not do so but show some respect for the leader. How does that translate into "women must not speak, preach, read the Scriptures or teach in church services as part of the worship - at any time in the future?" Why did Paul tell women to be quiet when he had previously told them HOW to prophesy and pray in worship?
First of all your words and interpretation about what “not speaking” in the church were are not accurate. The issue there in 1 Cor 14 was about women judging or questioning their husbands and in relation to prophecy.
Yes, women can prophesy in meetings. But then it is not so much them speaking. But men were to judge prophecy not women. This may have been where some women would claim the equal gift but God showed that they should not judge or question in this regard. Especially over their husbands.
And when a person has the gift of prophecy it is not them speaking. Teaching is a different gift and not an immediate unction for the most part. Although all teachers must still be taught all things by the anointing (1 John 2:27)
Or, as I asked, how do you know that these words - which may well have come from God as a command to that problem in that church - apply to us today? I am pretty sure that were Paul writing today, he would say things like "turn your mobiles off during worship", "don't whisper to your neighbour that you don't like/agree with the preacher" and so on. He would be addressing the same issue - order and decorum in worship - but using examples that were relevant to our situations.
The commands were not by Paul but by the Lord Jesus Christ.
Also, the order is set in churches and covers all fleshly distractions such as you Mebtioned. I can apply scripture that has already been given to all those situations you mention. For all are to wait in silence until God leads. If they were watching cell phones then they could not be seeking the Lord for ministry etc.
You seem to have take the phrase "commands of the Lord", that Paul was writing to churches in Greece, and made it refer to the commands that Jesus gave his disciples - they don't.
They are the exact same. Jesus Christ spoke in Paul and Peter and others to the churches his commands. If we love the Lord we keep His Commandments. Paul said the things that he wrote were the commandments of the Lord and by the Lord Jesus.
That is not a correction; that is saying "I can prove my point by taking 2 different verses that mention 'commandments' and make out that they refer to the same thing." It's like taking an apple and an orange - both fruit - and trying to make a banana.
Where does JESUS say, in the Gospels, "women must not teach, or speak, in my church"?
It doesn’t have to be in the four gospels, Jesus spoke directly to the churches through Paul, Peter and in the letters to the churches. In these he spoke that women should not speak in certain ways. And yes I already showed that women can speak in other ways, such as prophecy, revelation, evangelism, testimony, spiritual songs and prayers, teach younger women and children etc.
Your understanding here is not correct in every word you spoke.
