Prostitution and adultery

Joe Pinzone

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1 Corinthians 6:16
Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body? For it is said, "The two will become one flesh."

Mark 10:7-9
7‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, 8and the two will become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two, but one flesh. 9Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate.”

I was thinking about this verse (1 Corinthians 6:16). Technically speaking wouldn't the first person that the prostitute had sex with be her husband and the others be adultery? PS - I had sex with a prostitute before I became a born again christian.
 

Rubiks

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Regarding the topic of premarital sex it is true that some interpret a first sexual experience as a de facto marriage. An OT law about a man paying the woman's father a bride price is sometimes cited here.

As for the prostitute you hired before you became a Christian, I wouldn't worry about. The God of the Bible isn't out to get you. He loves you.
 
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FireDragon76

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No, you are not married to a prostitute- up until recently nobody would have understood that verse that way. Paul is just making an analogy, and like all analogies, it can be taken too far.

"One flesh" refers to kinship, it does not refer specifically to a sex act. Two people who marry are a new family, it's not good to break that up unless there are very serious reasons to do so.
 
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