Rabbi blasts Ilhan Omar, NYT for pushing claim Jesus was ‘Palestinian,’ not Jewish

ewq1938 said:

This is pure speculation. Only people that lived in those days could say what languages had ceased. There's plenty of scriptural evidence that Christ knew Hebrew and was not the only one:

Did Jesus Speak Hebrew? - Disputing Aramaic Priority

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essentialsaltes said:

Yeah, I was going to bring up America in reference to this quote from the OP:

"“Palestine was a name made up by Romans after they crucified thousands, destroyed the Holy Temple in Jerusalem and exiled the People of Israel from their homeland,” Cooper told the Jewish Journal."

(I would also note that Palestine is cognate with the Philistines of the Bible, and the name even in the more modern form is older than the Romans.)

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Silverback said:

"to ordain and establish this constitution for the United States of America"

We are recognized as such by the International community, and by Great Britain since the Treaty of Paris.

"God Bless America, my home sweet home"

look up American in websters.

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usexpat97 said:

Jesus spoke Aramaic and colloquial Greek--not Hebrew. Although I'm sure an omniscient Jesus knew them all. He lived in the Roman province of Palestina.

A Palestinian Jew is perfectly fair.

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Chesterton said:

A geographic region having a name does not equal being a nation.

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The Mojave Desert has never been a nation.

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Monk Brendan said:

That's a pretty much established historical fact that Hebrew had ceased to be a vernacular language.

This is a result of the Babylonian exile.

I NEVER said that Jesus did not knoiw Hebrew.

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R. Genevieve said:

Jesus lived in the Roman province of Judaea. The region wasn't called Syria Palaestina until after the time of Christ.

The word Palestinian is derived from the same root word as Philistine, and it refers to the descendants of non-Jewish people groups living in the Holy Land, who, in modern times, are either Christian or Muslim.

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Modern archaeology has identified 12 ancient inscriptions from Egyptian and Assyrian records recording likely cognates of Hebrew Pelesheth. The term "Peleset" (transliterated from hieroglyphs as P-r-s-t) is found in five inscriptions referring to a neighboring people or land starting from c. 1150 BCE during the Twentieth dynasty of Egypt. The first known mention is at the temple at Medinet Habu which refers to the Peleset among those who fought with Egypt in Ramesses III's reign,[1][2] and the last known is 300 years later on Padiiset's Statue. Seven known Assyrian inscriptions refer to the region of "Palashtu" or "Pilistu", beginning with Adad-nirari III in the Nimrud Slab in c. 800 BCE through to a treaty made by Esarhaddon more than a century later.[3][4] Neither the Egyptian nor the Assyrian sources provided clear regional boundaries for the term.

The first clear use of the term Palestine to refer to the entire area between Phoenicia and Egypt was in 5th century BCE Ancient Greece,[7][8] when Herodotus wrote of a "district of Syria, called Palaistinê" (Ancient Greek: Συρίη ἡ Παλαιστίνη καλεομένη)[9] in The Histories, which included the Judean mountains and the Jordan Rift Valley.[10][ii] Approximately a century later, Aristotle used a similar definition for the region in Meteorology, in which he included the Dead Sea.[12] Later Greek writers such as Polemon and Pausanias also used the term to refer to the same region, which was followed by Roman writers such as Ovid, Tibullus, Pomponius Mela, Pliny the Elder, Dio Chrysostom, Statius, Plutarch as well as Roman Judean writers Philo of Alexandria and Josephus.[13][14] The term was first used to denote an official province in c. 135 CE, when the Roman authorities, following the suppression of the Bar Kokhba Revolt, combined Iudaea Provincewith Galilee and the Paralia to form "Syria Palaestina". There is circumstantial evidence linking Hadrian with the name change,[15] but the precise date is not certain[15] and the assertion of some scholars that the name change was intended "to complete the dissociation with Judaea"[16] is disputed.[17] (emph. added)

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tulc(in case anyone was interested)

tulc said:

Interesting article here:
Palestine (region) - Wikipedia

tulc(in case anyone was interested)

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From Latin Palaestīna (“Roman province of Palestine”), from Ancient Greek Παλαιστίνη (Palaistínē, “Philistia and the surrounding region”), from Hebrew פְּלֶשֶׁת‎ (p'léshet, “Philistia, land of the Philistines”),[1][2] from the root פ־ל־ש‎ (p-l-š, “migrate, invade”).[3]

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In the 2nd century CE, the Romans crushed the revolt of Shimon Bar Kokhba (132 CE), during which Jerusalem and Judea were regained and the area of Judea was renamed Palaestina in an attempt to minimize Jewish identification with the land of Israel.

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The name Palestine originates from the Philistine inhabitance of the land of Judea. After the Romans conquered the region in the second century C.E., the Romans used the term Palestinia to refer to the region in an attempt to minimize Jewish attachment to the land. The Arabic use of the term Filastin is from this Latin root.

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The term was first used to denote an official province in c. 135 CE, when the Roman authorities, following the suppression of the Bar Kokhba Revolt, combined Iudaea Province with Galilee and the Paralia to form "Syria Palaestina". There is circumstantial evidence linking Hadrian with the name change,[15] but the precise date is not certain[15] and the assertion of some scholars that the name change was intended "to complete the dissociation with Judaea"[16] is disputed.[17]

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R. Genevieve said:

I am aware of the history of the word "Palestine". However, my point still stands.
From the etymology section of the Wiktionary page on the word "Palestine".


From the Jewish Virtual Library (x):

The Jewish people living in the regions were not referred to as Palestinians until the late 1940s, and now the term refers almost exclusively to non-Jewish people in the region.

More from the Jewish Virtual Library (x):


Furthermore, as is is stated in elsewhere on the Wikipedia page you referenced...


Ergo, it is anachronistic to refer to Jesus as being from the Roman province of Palestine when the region was part of the Roman Province of Judaea at the time. (Although, granted, if you want to get technical, He could also be called a Galileean, since He was raised in Nazareth despite being born in Bethlehem).

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essentialsaltes said:

Curiously enough...

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Silverback said:

"to ordain and establish this constitution for the United States of America"

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Chesterton said:

Why'd you link to that? What do you find curious?

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usexpat97 said:

Jesus spoke Aramaic and colloquial Greek--not Hebrew. Although I'm sure an omniscient Jesus knew them all. He lived in the Roman province of Palestina.

A Palestinian Jew is perfectly fair.

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Ringo84 said:

It doesn't matter what she says, or how correct/incorrect it is. The craven of Omar's opponents are going to latch on to whatever she says, take it out of context, and pretend that it's the worst thing a politician has ever said.

Meanwhile, of course, Steve "calves the size of cantaloupes" King compares himself to Jesus Himself because he received blowback for his truly racist comments. He's excused. Ihlan opens her mouth and is condemned. The hypocrisy lives on.
Ringo

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Verv said:

So your argument, Ringo, is just the tu quoque fallacy.

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essentialsaltes said:

Not quite. Ringo didn't make (so far as I know) statements or arguments about the matter. So he is not in a position to attempt to claim "you're doing the same thing I'm doing so what I'm doing is okay".

Rather he is criticizing the hypocrisy of those who seize on one matter while ignoring an equivalent one.

Ringo (so far as I know) has not promoted an argument of his own that he is attempting to prove with a fallacy. So he cannot be charged with a fallacy that explodes 'his argument'.

(See also the thread about "Easter worshippers" where Obama and Hillary are faulted for not tweeting the word "Christian" but Trump is not faulted for not tweeting the word "Christian" with respect to the Sri Lankan terrorist attacks. I haven't tweeted anything about the matter, and feel well within my rights (IMHO) to point out this double standard.)

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It doesn't matter what she says, or how correct/incorrect it is. The craven of Omar's opponents are going to latch on to whatever she says, take it out of context, and pretend that it's the worst thing a politician has ever said.

Meanwhile, of course, Steve "calves the size of cantaloupes" King compares himself to Jesus Himself ...

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usexpat97 said:

Jesus spoke Aramaic and colloquial Greek--not Hebrew. Although I'm sure an omniscient Jesus knew them all. He lived in the Roman province of Palestina.

A Palestinian Jew is perfectly fair.

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Monk Brendan said:

By that time, Hebrew had ceased to be a vernacular language.

During OUr Lord's earthly sojourn, there was a METOURGEMAN who gave a running translation of the Scriptures into Aramaic.

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