When to look for the rapture of the church

keras said:

You have presented scripture; yes. But evidence for a 'rapture'? No.

I don't 'purposefully' avoid your so called proofs, I read them for what they actually say.
For example; 1 Thessalonians 4:17 is telling us about the Return of Jesus for His Millennium reign. He has departed from heaven and those faithful Christians, who remain after all of the prophesied events as described in Revelation, up to chapter 19:11, have taken place. No one is said to go to heaven then, or before or after.

Re the Old Testament: There is nowhere there any prophecy saying that God will take His faithful people to heaven. Exceptions like Enoch and Elijah do not make the rule.
The OT repeatedly prophesies the restoration of the true faithful Israelites of God, now known as Christians, into all of the holy Land. Isaiah 35:1-10, Ezekiel 34:11-16

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Yep, you conveniently and purposefully avoided all the passages that have been presented previously, and still did so by not even casually referring to them specifically. You have yet to effectively show that in a clear, simple reading of the passages presented that they do not apply to removal of the redeemed up to the start of the GT period. And "rapture" is in the scripture, at least in the Latin Vulgate as "rapturo" (from which we get the Anglicized word, "rapture"), is the Latin translation of the Greek "harpazo" which many English translations describe as "caught up".

The passages you presented, there is no way except via an extreme allegorical approach to suggest the redeemed of the "church" is what Zeke and Yeshi were talking about. Notice how Yeshi (Isaiah) says in Isaiah 35:10.... "And the ransomed of the Lord shall return". The majority of the redeemed of Yeshua never were there, then left, then to return. But the Hebrews as a distinct entity were there and will be brought back as many passages of scripture profess. The Hebrews will be ransomed as a collective people. But as Ezekiel 20 and Matthew 24 show (there is those two witnesses again), not every individual Hebrew will be redeemed after the collective of the Hebrew people are gathered.

It is a similar idea in Hosea regarding Yeshua. In Hosea 5:14-15, because of the Hebrew's rejection, Yeshua will return to His place. Well, in order to return to His place He had to have left His place first. Basic, simple reasoning applied to this passage in Hosea and also to Isaiah 35:10.

And that leads us full circle to the Two House theory that you have promoted elsewhere, when it has been shown via many, many passages in 2 Chronicles, Ezra, Nehemiah, and even the NT that there never was any "lost tribes" to support the theory. And while you did not specifically mention it in the post being responded to, it seems to be alluded to in your use of the passages you posted and who they refer to, and you have definitely promoted the concept in the past.

Copperhead said:

You have yet to effectively show that in a clear, simple reading of the passages presented that they do not apply to removal of the redeemed up to the start of the GT period.

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YOU have yet to show that those scriptures DO say that God will remove His people.
Please provide a verse that actually says this.

Your obfuscation is becoming legendary. Demanding that I prove your fanciful ideas don't exist, is simple; the Bible never says any such thing and Jesus Himself refutes it. John 3:13