Are Daniel 2 and Daniel 7 the same ?

Berean Tim

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Are Daniel 2 and Daniel 7 the same ? The statue is clearly successive -
36“This was the dream. Now we will tell the king its interpretation. 37You, O king, the king of kings, to whom the God of heaven has given the kingdom, the power, and the might, and the glory,38and into whose hand he has given, wherever they dwell, the children of man, the beasts of the field, and the birds of the heavens, making you rule over them all—you are the head of gold.

But Daniel's 4 beast are contemporary - Daniel 7 11“I looked then because of the sound of the great words that the horn was speaking. And as I looked, the beast was killed, and its body destroyed and given over to be burned with fire. 12As for the rest of the beasts, their dominion was taken away, but their lives were prolonged for a season and a time
 
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HTacianas

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Are Daniel 2 and Daniel 7 the same ? The statue is clearly successive -
36“This was the dream. Now we will tell the king its interpretation. 37You, O king, the king of kings, to whom the God of heaven has given the kingdom, the power, and the might, and the glory,38and into whose hand he has given, wherever they dwell, the children of man, the beasts of the field, and the birds of the heavens, making you rule over them all—you are the head of gold.

But Daniel's 4 beast are contemporary - Daniel 7 11“I looked then because of the sound of the great words that the horn was speaking. And as I looked, the beast was killed, and its body destroyed and given over to be burned with fire. 12As for the rest of the beasts, their dominion was taken away, but their lives were prolonged for a season and a time

Read I Maccabees. It tells the whole story.
 
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TribulationSigns

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Read I Maccabees. It tells the whole story.

Forget Maccabees. It is not part of the Holy Bible. The Catholics added it as part of the Apocrypha. That explains why the book of Maccabees has false teachings like the offering of money for the sins of the dead (2 Maccabees 12:43-45).

Jesus implicitly rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture. The Apocryphal books do not share many of the characteristics of the Canonical books. It is not even prophetic. There is no supernatural confirmation of any of the apocryphal writers works, there is no predictive prophecy, there is no new Messianic truth revealed, they are not cited as authoritative by any prophetic book written after them, and they even acknowledge that there were no prophets in Israel at their time (1 Macc 9:27; 14:41). So why are you asking us to read I Maccabees to understand the book of Daniel? Humm...
 
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Berean Tim

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Read I Maccabees. It tells the whole story.
I have.
Daniel 11 gives a history of the Seleucid and Ptolemy empires and Kings with Antiochus IV being wrote about in 1st Maccabees. Daniel 9 states - 27And he shall make a strong covenant with many for one week,g and for half of the week he shall put an end to sacrifice and offering. And on the wing of abominations shall come one who makes desolate, until the decreed end is poured out on the desolator.”

When Jesus said in Matthew 24:15“So when you see the abomination of desolation spoken of by the prophet Daniel, standing in the holy place (let the reader understand),

He wasn’t looking backward in time to Antiochus IV
 
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Brian Mcnamee

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Are Daniel 2 and Daniel 7 the same ? The statue is clearly successive -
36“This was the dream. Now we will tell the king its interpretation. 37You, O king, the king of kings, to whom the God of heaven has given the kingdom, the power, and the might, and the glory,38and into whose hand he has given, wherever they dwell, the children of man, the beasts of the field, and the birds of the heavens, making you rule over them all—you are the head of gold.

But Daniel's 4 beast are contemporary - Daniel 7 11“I looked then because of the sound of the great words that the horn was speaking. And as I looked, the beast was killed, and its body destroyed and given over to be burned with fire. 12As for the rest of the beasts, their dominion was taken away, but their lives were prolonged for a season and a time
Hi The two chapters are talking about the same events. In Neb's dream he was told the dream and the interpretation. He does indeed refer to this as a future event. In Dan 7 we see Daniel saw the vision so when he speaks of past tense he records what he saw. If you look at the interpretation given to Daniels it is indeed still future. Both chapters speak of the coming kingdom that will cover the earth and have no end and certainly their can only be one unending kingdom that come and lasts forever.
Here are the interpretive verses in Dan 7 that show it us a future event. 6 I came near to one of those who stood by, and asked him the truth of all this. So he told me and made known to me the interpretation of these things: 17 ‘Those great beasts, which are four, are four kings[fn] which arise out of the earth. 18 But the saints of the Most High shall receive the kingdom, and possess the kingdom forever, even forever and ever.’
23 “Thus he said:
‘The fourth beast shall be
A fourth kingdom on earth,
Which shall be different from all other kingdoms,
And shall devour the whole earth,
Trample it and break it in pieces.
24 The ten horns are ten kings
Who shall arise from this kingdom.
And another shall rise after them;
He shall be different from the first ones,
And shall subdue three kings.
25 He shall speak pompous words against the Most High,
Shall persecute[fn] the saints of the Most High,
And shall intend to change times and law.
Then the saints shall be given into his hand
For a time and times and half a time.
26 ‘But the court shall be seated,
And they shall take away his dominion,
To consume and destroy it forever.
27 Then the kingdom and dominion,
And the greatness of the kingdoms under the whole heaven,
Shall be given to the people, the saints of the Most High.
His kingdom is an everlasting kingdom,
And all dominions shall serve and obey Him.’
 
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HTacianas

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Forget Maccabees. It is not part of the Holy Bible. The Catholics added it as part of the Apocrypha. That explains why the book of Maccabees has false teachings like the offering of money for the sins of the dead (2 Maccabees 12:43-45).

Jesus implicitly rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture. The Apocryphal books do not share many of the characteristics of the Canonical books. It is not even prophetic. There is no supernatural confirmation of any of the apocryphal writers works, there is no predictive prophecy, there is no new Messianic truth revealed, they are not cited as authoritative by any prophetic book written after them, and they even acknowledge that there were no prophets in Israel at their time (1 Macc 9:27; 14:41). So why are you asking us to read I Maccabees to understand the book of Daniel? Humm...

I Maccabees has been part of the Christian canon for as long as there has been a Christian canon.
 
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TribulationSigns

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I Maccabees has been part of the Christian canon for as long as there has been a Christian canon.

No. They’re are not recognized as canon by Protestants and Jews. The RCC does think it is. That explains their unchristian doctrines!
 
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HTacianas

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No. They’re are not recognized as canon by Protestants and Jews. The RCC does think it is. That explains their unchristian doctrines!

All of the original apostolic Churches use the Christian canon including Maccabees. Christianity has always used the Septuagint. It is older than the modern Jewish canon.
 
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TribulationSigns

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All of the original apostolic Churches use the Christian canon including Maccabees. Christianity has always used the Septuagint. It is older than the modern Jewish canon.

Incorrect. This theory is based on the fact that the earliest copy of the Septuagint available today contains these extra books, while none of the Hebrew Scriptures contain them. These books, along with the rest of the Bible, were translated by Jerome into Latin around A.D. 400, but Jerome himself did not think they belonged in the Old Testament.

Even though the Septuagint existed in New Testament times and was available to the New Testament writers (the Book of Hebrews quotes from the Septuagint), there are no direct quotations from the Apocrypha in the New Testament nor does the New Testament refer to any apocryphal books as part of Scripture.

No general church council in the first four centuries of Christian history endorsed apocryphal books. Even the Roman Catholic Church did not officially recognize the Apocrypha as belonging in the Bible until the Council of Trent in A.D. 1546 which is Catholicism's response to the Reformation! Guess what, some teaching found in the Apocrypha appear to be unbiblical and even heretical. For example, praying for the dead (2 Maccabees 12:45-46), salvation by works (Tobit 12:9). Let me ask you something, do you believe in offering of money for the sins of the dead (2 Maccabees 12:43-45). Yes or no? Is it Scriptural?
 
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HTacianas

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Incorrect. This theory is based on the fact that the earliest copy of the Septuagint available today contains these extra books, while none of the Hebrew Scriptures contain them. These books, along with the rest of the Bible, were translated by Jerome into Latin around A.D. 400, but Jerome himself did not think they belonged in the Old Testament.

Even though the Septuagint existed in New Testament times and was available to the New Testament writers (the Book of Hebrews quotes from the Septuagint), there are no direct quotations from the Apocrypha in the New Testament nor does the New Testament refer to any apocryphal books as part of Scripture.

No general church council in the first four centuries of Christian history endorsed apocryphal books. Even the Roman Catholic Church did not officially recognize the Apocrypha as belonging in the Bible until the Council of Trent in A.D. 1546 which is Catholicism's response to the Reformation! Guess what, some teaching found in the Apocrypha appear to be unbiblical and even heretical. For example, praying for the dead (2 Maccabees 12:45-46), salvation by works (Tobit 12:9). Let me ask you something, do you believe in offering of money for the sins of the dead (2 Maccabees 12:43-45). Yes or no? Is it Scriptural?

Your analysis is incorrect. The Council of Trent did not establish the canon of scripture, but only restated it. That is a well worn misstatement of fact made by those with no understanding of the history of the Christian canon.

And while some early churchmen such as Jerome expressed some objections to the "apocryphal" books, still many others did not, and quoted them frequently. The single common objection among all of those having reservations was that the Jews did not include those books in their canon. But the Jewish canon was not established until late first century AD, long after the Septuagint.

And no, I do not offer money for the dead but often pray for the souls of the dead, which has been the tradition of Christianity from the beginning.
 
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TribulationSigns

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And no, I do not offer money for the dead but often pray for the souls of the dead, which has been the tradition of Christianity from the beginning.

My analysis is correct. You did not read carefully and I won't argue on this with you.

But AGAIN, I ask you, is offering money for the dead as 2 Maccabees 12:45-46 biblical? Yes or No, please! And show us the Scripture where we need to pray for the souls of the dead?! Do you realize that Roman Catholics celebrate All Souls' day or the Day of the Dead? It is an effort to hasten their transition from purgatory to heaven by being purged and cleansed from their sins. So do we need to pray for the souls of the dead? Show us in Scripture!

Why should we pray for the souls of the dead when they die (sleep) in his grave in unconsciousness until the resurrection.

Ecclesiastes 9:5 KJV
[5] For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not any thing, neither have they any more a reward; for the memory of them is forgotten.

Clearly, prayers should be for the living while there is still hope of repentance, not for the dead, who can do nothing. There are NO biblical grounds for the doctrine of the immortality of the soul. It is a practice's historical association with the Roman Catholic Church and the doctrine of purgatory.
 
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HTacianas

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My analysis is correct. You did not read carefully and I won't argue on this with you.

But AGAIN, I ask you, is offering money for the dead as 2 Maccabees 12:45-46 biblical? Yes or No, please! And show us the Scripture where we need to pray for the souls of the dead?! Do you realize that Roman Catholics celebrate All Souls' day or the Day of the Dead? It is an effort to hasten their transition from purgatory to heaven by being purged and cleansed from their sins. So do we need to pray for the souls for the dead? Show us in Scripture!

Yes, it is biblical. And you're being a bit circular here. It is "biblical" because it can be found in the Christian bible at 2 Maccabees 12:45-46. You say it is not biblical because it is not in the bible and it is not in the bible because you have taken it out of the bible.

It's the same argument this guy makes:

Why Were the Books of the Old Testament Apocrypha Rejected as Holy Scripture by the Protestants?

Buy he has even more embarrassing errors in his analysis.
 
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TribulationSigns

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Yes, it is biblical. And you're being a bit circular here. It is "biblical" because it can be found in the Christian bible at 2 Maccabees 12:45-46. You say it is not biblical because it is not in the bible and it is not in the bible because you have taken it out of the bible.

I did not take it out! Thankfully my brothers in Christ did! Jesus Christ and his disciples NEVER quoted from Apocrypha. Not once are any of these apocryphal books quoted or even explicitly referred to by the Lord Jesus Christ, or by any New Testament writer. Not once!

And Apocrypha has too many erroneous doctrines like the pre-existence of the soul. Praying/Money offering for the Dead. What about Suicide Noble in 2nd Maccabees 14:41-43. What about the Magical Potions of Tobit 6:1-17? What about Murder applauded in Judith 9:2-9. Do these moral tones of the Apocrypha even match with the sacred 66 books of the Bible? Of course not! That is why the Protestant Reformers REJECTED the Apocryphic, including your precious Maccabees, that these be cannot be included in the volume of sacred Scripture. This what infuriated the RCC where the council issued a decree damning anyone who rejected these last seven books of the Apocrypha were incorporated into Roman Catholic editions of the Bible? There is a proof that the Catholic Council of Trent (1546) affirmed the canonicity of these books, as found in the Latin Vulgate, and condemned those who reject them.

Educate yourself on Canons and Decrees of the Council of Trent, 1546.

I see that you are Eastern Orthodox which is an Eastern Christians believe that they confess the true doctrine of God in the right (orthodox) way. The Bible of the Orthodox Church is the same as that of most Western Churches, except that its Old Testament is based not on the Hebrew, but on the ancient Jewish translation into Greek called the Septuagint. Go figure!
 
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HTacianas

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I did not take it out! Thankfully my brothers in Christ did! Jesus Christ and his disciples NEVER quoted from Apocrypha. Not once are any of these apocryphal books quoted or even explicitly referred to by the Lord Jesus Christ, or by any New Testament writer. Not once!

And Apocrypha has too many erroneous doctrines like the pre-existence of the soul. Praying/Money offering for the Dead. What about Suicide Noble in 2nd Maccabees 14:41-43. What about the Magical Potions of Tobit 6:1-17? What about Murder applauded in Judith 9:2-9. Do these moral tones of the Apocrypha even match with the sacred 66 books of the Bible? Of course not! That is why the Protestant Reformers REJECTED the Apocryphic, including your precious Maccabees, that these be cannot be included in the volume of sacred Scripture. This what infuriated the RCC where the council issued a decree damning anyone who rejected these last seven books of the Apocrypha were incorporated into Roman Catholic editions of the Bible? There is a proof that the Catholic Council of Trent (1546) affirmed the canonicity of these books, as found in the Latin Vulgate, and condemned those who reject them.

Educate yourself on Canons and Decrees of the Council of Trent, 1546.

Are we to remove from the bible and abandon all books of the old testament that are not quoted in the new testament? That's a long list.

LMGTFY

Murder and suicide in the bible: Judges 16:

28 Then Samson prayed to the Lord, “Sovereign Lord, remember me. Please, God, strengthen me just once more, and let me with one blow get revenge on the Philistines for my two eyes.” 29 Then Samson reached toward the two central pillars on which the temple stood. Bracing himself against them, his right hand on the one and his left hand on the other, 30 Samson said, “Let me die with the Philistines!” Then he pushed with all his might, and down came the temple on the rulers and all the people in it. Thus he killed many more when he died than while he lived.

Magic Potions: Numbers 5

17 And he shall take holy water in an earthen vessel, and he shall cast a little earth of the pavement of the tabernacle into it.

18 And when the woman shall stand before the Lord, he shall uncover her head, and shall, put on her hands the sacrifice of remembrance, and the oblation of jealousy: and he himself shall hold the most bitter waters, whereon he hath heaped curses with execration.

You rightly say above that the Council of Trent "affirmed the canonicity of these books", but the Council of Trent did not canonize them. If they weren't canonized until 1546 they would not be found in the canon of the Coptic Orthodox Church. The Coptic Church hasn't been in communion with Rome since prior to the Council of Chalcedon held 451 AD so their canon could not possibly have been created by the Council of Trent. The Christian canon has existed since before then.

By the way. The Jewish custom of sitting Shiva for the dead includes reciting Kaddish for the dead:

"Judaism believes that prior to a soul's entry into heaven, a maximum of twelve months is required in order for even the worst soul to be purified. Though the entirety of mourning lasts for twelve months, Kaddish is only recited for eleven months so as to not imply the soul required an entire twelve months of purification."

Shiva (Judaism) - Wikipedia

You're not convincing me.
 
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Mark51

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Daniel 7:4 (lion) is the same symbolic reference to the head of gold (Babylon).
Daniel 7:5 (bear) is the same symbolic reference to the breast and arms of silver (Medo-Persia). Compare Daniel 8:3 to verse 20. References are the same.
Daniel 7:6 (Leopard) is the same symbolic reference to the belly and thighs of copper (Greece). Compare Daniel 8:5 to verse 21. Reference is the same.
Daniel 7:7 is the same symbolic reference to a beast unusually strong with iron teeth (Rome).

These four kingdoms represent four of the heads of the “wild beast” at Revelation 13:1
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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HTacianas said:
Read I Maccabees. It tells the whole story.
Forget Maccabees. It is not part of the Holy Bible. The Catholics added it as part of the Apocrypha. That explains why the book of Maccabees has false teachings like the offering of money for the sins of the dead (2 Maccabees 12:43-45).
Jesus implicitly rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture. The Apocryphal books do not share many of the characteristics of the Canonical books. It is not even prophetic. There is no supernatural confirmation of any of the apocryphal writers works, there is no predictive prophecy, there is no new Messianic truth revealed, they are not cited as authoritative by any prophetic book written after them, and they even acknowledge that there were no prophets in Israel at their time (1 Macc 9:27; 14:41). So why are you asking us to read I Maccabees to understand the book of Daniel? Humm...
I agree..........

The Canonization of Maccabees
Sabertooth said:
I have never read the book so maybe it is painfully obvious, but the following observation raises a question for me.

In John 10:22, we see Jesus participating in the Feast of Dedication, aka Hanukkah. Wouldn't His acknowledgement of the feast, imply a ratification of Maccabees as canon or, at least, some portion of it? :confused:
=========================================
1 Maccabees - Wikipedia

Canonicity
Pope Damasus I's Council of Rome in 382, if the Decretum Gelasianum is correctly associated with it, issued a biblical canon identical with the list given at Trent including the two books of Maccabees. Origen of Alexandria (253),[2] Augustine of Hippo (c. 397),[3] Pope Innocent I (405),[4][5] Synod of Hippo (393),[6] the Council of Carthage (397),[7] the Council of Carthage (419),[8] the Apostolic Canons,[9] the Council of Florence (1442)[10] and the Council of Trent (1546)[11] listed the first two books of Maccabees as canonical.

Transmission, language and author
The text comes to us in three codices of the Septuagint: the Codex Sinaiticus, Codex Alexandrinus and Codex Venetus, as well as some cursives.

Though the original book was written in Hebrew, as can be deduced by a number of Hebrew idioms in the text,[citation needed] the original has been lost and the version which comes down to us is the Septuagint. Some authors date the original Hebrew text even closer to the events covered, while a few suggest a later date. Because of the accuracy of the historical account, if the later date is taken, the author would have to have had access to first-hand reports of the events or other primary sources.

Origen of Alexandria[12] gives testimony to the existence of an original Hebrew text. Jerome likewise claims "the first book of Maccabees I have found to be Hebrew, the second is Greek, as can be proved from the very style" (per Prologus Galeatus). Many scholars suggest that they may have actually had access to a Biblical Aramaic paraphrase of the work—but one should be aware of a "creeping Aramaicism", finding evidence for a vaguely Aramaic text when there is nothing definite to point to.[citation needed] Only the Greek text has survived, and this only through its inclusion in the Christian canon. Origen claims that the title of the original was Sarbēth Sarbanael (variants include Σαρβηθ Σα[ρ]βαναι ελ "Sarbēth Sa[r]banai El" and Σαρβηθ Σα[ρ]βανέελ Sarbēth Sa[r]baneel), an enigmatic Greek transliteration from a putative Hebrew original.[citation needed] Various reconstructions have been propose
================================
2 Maccabees - Wikipedia

Catholics and the Eastern Orthodox regard 2 Maccabees as canonical. Jews and all Protestants other than Anglo-Catholics do not. Based on (not necessarily reliable) copies,[10][11] 1 and 2 Maccabees appears in manuscripts of the Septuagint,[12] the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible, which was completed by the 2nd century BC [13] along with (in some copies) 3 and 4 Maccabees and Psalm 151 which are considered apocryphal by the Roman Catholic church.[14] The Codex Vaticanus lacks 1 and 2 Maccabees (but includes 1 Esdras) which Codex Sinaiticus includes along with 4 Maccabees (but omits Baruch), which evidences a lack of uniformity in the lists of books in early manuscripts of the Septuagint.[15] Neither 1st nor 2nd Maccabees were found among the Dead Sea Scrolls.[16] Pope Damasus I's Council of Rome in 382, if the Decretum Gelasianum is correctly associated with it, issued a biblical canon identical with the list given at Trent including the two books of Maccabees, Origen of Alexandria (A.D. 253),[17] Augustine of Hippo (c. 397 AD),[18] Pope Innocent I (405 AD),[19][20] Synod of Hippo (393 AD),[21] the Council of Carthage (397 AD),[22] the Council of Carthage (419 AD),[23] the Apostolic Canons,[24] the Council of Florence (1442 AD)[25] and the Council of Trent (1546 AD)[26] listed the first two books of Maccabees as canonical.

In Jamnia c 90, according to one theory now largely discredited[citation needed], rabbis endorsed a narrower canon, excluding deuterocanonical works such as 2 Maccabees. This had little immediate impact on Christians, however, since most Christians did not know Hebrew and were familiar with the Hebrew Bible through the Greek Septuagint text from hellenistic Jews, although some researchers believe that under Christian auspices the books known to Protestants and Jews as apocryphal and to Roman Catholics as deuterocanonical were added to the Septuagint.[27] In addition, the canonical status of deuterocanonical books was disputed among some notable scholars from early on and into the Council of Trent,[28][29][30] which first definitively settled the matter of the OT Canon[31] on 8 April 1546,[32] after the death of Martin Luther.[33]

Although 2 Maccabees was included by Luther[34] and other early reformers in their Bibles, they were rejected as being on the same level as canonical writings.[35] Martin Luther said: "I am so great an enemy to the second book of the Maccabees, and to Esther, that I wish they had not come to us at all, for they have too many heathen unnaturalities."[36] Other evangelical writers have been more positive towards the book: twentieth century author James B. Jordan, for example, argues that while 1 Maccabees "was written to try and show the Maccabean usurpers as true heirs of David and as true High Priests" and is a "wicked book," a "far more accurate picture of the situation is given in 2 Maccabees."[37]
==========================================
==========================================
Where is the abomination of desolation of Daniel, Matt and Mark shown in Revelation

Hebrew Interlinear of Daniel 11:31 Showing the use of the Definite Article -
THE Abomination of Desolation
Hebrew Interlinear of Daniel 12:11 Showing the Absence of the Definite Article -
AN Abomination of Desolation

Daniel 10:14 "Now I have come to make you understand what will happen to your people in the last of the days, that future vision for the days.

Daniel 11:31

and arms/02220 z@rowa` from him, they shall stand up. And they profane//violate/02490 chalal the Sanctuary/04720 miqdash, the-Refuge/ma`owz. And they take-away/05493 cuwr the-Continually/08548 tamiyd, and they give/05414 nathan The-Abomination/08251 shiqquwts, one-making-desolate/08074 shamem.

Daniel 12:11

And-from-time he-is-taken-away/05493 cuwr the-continually/08548 tamiyd, and-to-give-of/05414 nathan an-abomination/08251 shiqquwts, one-desolating/08074 shamem, days, thousand, twohundreds, and ninety

Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke's Temple/Jerusalem Discourses harmonized


Matthew 24:15
Whenever then ye may be seeing the abomination<946> of the desolation<2050>, the being declared<4483> thru Daniel the prophet, having-stood<2476> in a place<5117>, holy<40> (the one-reading<ἀναγινώσκων <314> let him be understanding<νοείτω 3539>)...
16 then those in the Judea let them be fleeing!<5343> into the mountains<3735>
Mark 13:14
`Whenever yet ye may be seeing the abomination<946> of the desolation<2050>, the being declared thru Daniel the prophet, having-stood where not it is binding<1163>, (the one-reading< ἀναγινώσκων <314> let him be minding/understanding), then those in the Judea, let them be fleeing! into the mountains
Luke 21:20
Whenever yet may be seeing the Jerusalem surrounded<2124> by war-troops<4760>, then be knowing that come nigh<1448> the desolating<2050> of Her
 
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ghtan

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Are Daniel 2 and Daniel 7 the same ? The statue is clearly successive -
36“This was the dream. Now we will tell the king its interpretation. 37You, O king, the king of kings, to whom the God of heaven has given the kingdom, the power, and the might, and the glory,38and into whose hand he has given, wherever they dwell, the children of man, the beasts of the field, and the birds of the heavens, making you rule over them all—you are the head of gold.

But Daniel's 4 beast are contemporary - Daniel 7 11“I looked then because of the sound of the great words that the horn was speaking. And as I looked, the beast was killed, and its body destroyed and given over to be burned with fire. 12As for the rest of the beasts, their dominion was taken away, but their lives were prolonged for a season and a time
I think Dan 2 and 7 are essentially the same except possibly Dan 2 focuses on Jesus' first coming whereas Dan 7 on the Second Coming. However, I think the focus of Dan 2 is not the prophecy but how it was that Daniel and friends came to be so high up in the civil service. Notice how few verses are dedicated to the prophecy itself, in contrast to ch 7. The prophecy serves only as background.
 
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Marilyn C

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Are Daniel 2 and Daniel 7 the same ? The statue is clearly successive -
36“This was the dream. Now we will tell the king its interpretation. 37You, O king, the king of kings, to whom the God of heaven has given the kingdom, the power, and the might, and the glory,38and into whose hand he has given, wherever they dwell, the children of man, the beasts of the field, and the birds of the heavens, making you rule over them all—you are the head of gold.

But Daniel's 4 beast are contemporary - Daniel 7 11“I looked then because of the sound of the great words that the horn was speaking. And as I looked, the beast was killed, and its body destroyed and given over to be burned with fire. 12As for the rest of the beasts, their dominion was taken away, but their lives were prolonged for a season and a time

Hi Berean Tim,

Well done. People have been deluded for so long whereas a careful reading of those chapters one can see they are different.

1. Daniel ch. 2 gives the overview of the 5 World Rulers, 4 have come and gone and been judged by God, and the final Gentile Global Government is already on the scene.

2. Daniel ch. 7 reveals the 4 great Super powers leading up to when God will set up His rulership through Israel over the nations. Three super powers have already come to power and in the order God has written. The last super power will arise when the Global Leader, (the Assyrian) brings in the Peace Treaty after the Russian war against Israel. Thus is looming fast on the horizon.

regards, Marilyn.
 
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