I am sharing this not to cause strife. This isn't a salvation issue, so if you don't agree that's fine. I do believe that the 1st century Jew spoke Aramaic (or a dialect of Aramaic, or Hebrew) as a primary language. Here are some reasons why I believe this, and these are just random as they come to me, not in any order of weight or importance:
>> 30 years prior to Yeshua walking with us (so "around" 30 BC) a paraphrase/translation known as the "Targums" were written by a disciple of Hillel named Jonathon Ben Uzziel. These are a great resource for us as they allow us to see (in places) what the Jewish view of the Tanach looked like. It is very pro-Messianic. But that aside, these were written in Aramaic.
>> Often Josephus is mentioned to support the idea that the 1st century Jew spoke in Greek because he wrote in Greek. This idea, respectfully, comes from those who have not read Josephus.
That would have helped as here is what he said about the Greek language:
I have also taken a great deal of pains to obtain the learning of the Greeks, and understand the elements of the Greek language, although I have so long accustomed myself to speak our own tongue, that I cannot pronounce Greek with sufficient exactness; for our nation does not encourage those that learn the languages of many nations, and so adorn their discourses with the smoothness of their periods; because they look upon this sort of accomplishment as common, not only to all sorts of free-men, but to as many of the servants as please to learn them. But they give him the testimony of being a wise man who is fully acquainted with our laws, and is able to interpret their meaning; on which account, as there have been many who have done their endeavors with great patience to obtain this learning, there have yet hardly been so many as two or three that have succeeded therein, who were immediately well rewarded for their pains.
— Antiquities of Jews XX, XI
>> When Paul spoke to his accusers, and made his defense against his own people, he did not do so in Greek:
Acts 21:40 So when he had given him permission, Paul stood on the stairs and motioned with his hand to the people. And when there was a great silence, he spoke to them in the Hebrew language, saying,
>> When Yeshua spoke to Paul in the Damascus Rd vision, he spoke to him in Hebrew:
Acts 26:14 And when we all had fallen to the ground, I heard a voice speaking to me and saying in the Hebrew language, 'Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting Me? It is hard for you to kick against the goads.'
>> When Jerome translated into Latin, he wrote that he used "an original Hebrew copy of Matthew" for that book.
>> Then He took the child by the hand, and said to her, "Talitha, cumi," which is translated, "Little girl, I say to you, arise." (Mark 5:41) If the language of the day was Greek, this verse (and a few others like it that use Aramaic phrases) don't make sense.
>> Abba, as a word, wouldn't appear as it does, and Barabbas is a Hellenized Aramaic word. Bar-abba means "son of the father" which could indicate that "Barabbas" was a false messiah who was freed in place of the true son of the father.
>> Matthew 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?" that is, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" ....... Why speak in Aramaic if everyone around is Greek?
>> Eusebius, the great church historian from the early parts of the 4th century, and a person who would have had a Greek bias... wrote that Paul wrote in Hebrew and was translated into Greek by Luke.... and that Peter wrote in Hebrew and was translated into Greek by Mark.
Again, these were just some random thoughts as they came to me. There are more reasons, I am sure I have a file of them somewhere.
I think the main point I would make is that regardless of the language they wrote in... what language and culture did they THINK in? God inspired them, but just reading the 4 gospels it is clear that each "author" retains their individuality. They use words and phrases they understand to make certain points. This is why Paul quotes a Greek play in at least one verse. So if the mindset was 1st century ancient near east (Hebraic) then trying to interpret it all from a 21st century western mindset leaves some food on the table God intended us to eat.
Blessings.
Ken
