Slavery IS Regulated in the Bible!

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To guide us up out of this normal evil (of that era in humanity) upward from barbarism slowly into the Rule of Law -- where instead of a king as highest, the Law from God is highest -- this is a very hard progression for humanity.
It took not years, but generations.
Even those with faith in God still failed often.
Okay. We get the idea. God deplored slavery, but felt that He couldn't just snap his fingers and stop it; He had to plan carefully. Forget that He could have just snapped his fingers and stopped it, and did similar things in the Bible when humans offended him. You say He couldn't, and that He had to plan long-term.
But, if this is the case, His actions don't make sense, and so we must conclude that either God did not have a plan to abolish slavery, or that God is really bad at planning.
Because what happened?
God decided to institute laws to protect and encourage the slave trade, explaining how people should go about capturing, buying, selling, keeping, working and punishing slaves.
The result? The slave trade flourished for centuries - and then, after it had died out, it was revived by Christians who looked to the Bible to justify their appalling actions. And, if you think about it, there's nothing to stop people from reading the Bible in the future and starting a new slave trade, if they wish, based upon God's commands.

But much worse were those not believing in God. The greater evils such as total lack of charity (total!), and even...child sacrifice, which when continuing warranted erasing such cultures/cities....
Sorry, did you just say that people who don't believe in God become depraved and evil? Some people around here might take that personally.
 
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Halbhh

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This article also has a good summary of the position of the Bible on slaves and slavery. It makes the excellent point that "This would have been a marvelous opportunity for Jesus to condemn the institution of slavery and its abuse of slaves. But he is not recorded of having taken it".

Further back in time in the Old Testament there were provisions for when slaves were offered freedom and if it happened that the slaves did not want freedom, how they could be given a permanent place as a slave.

Why wouldn't they want freedom do you think? It's not hard at all to imagine many would not like to starve to death as freed people, for instance. Or even more -- not want to leave a good home, as no doubt at times was exactly the situation, as not all people having indentured servants or slaves are cruel, and no doubt some were the exact opposite of cruel -- kind and generous. Some likely even outright loving.

So, it's not hard to imagine why provisions would be made in their interest, so that slaves that did not want freedom could be given a permanent place, rights, for life.

There are additional rights for slaves, and for foreigners.

Let's get a bigger picture here. What is slavery, in a broader sense?

Jesus chose in particular the instance of mistreating slaves as the epitome of evil, to represent all manner of evil, as discussed above once, so let me just quote the passage:

45 “Who then is the faithful and sensible slave whom his master put in charge of his household to give them their food at the proper time? 46 “Blessed is that slave whom his master finds so doing when he comes. 47 “Truly I say to you that he will put him in charge of all his possessions. 48 “But if that evil slave says in his heart, ‘My master is not coming for a long time,’ 49 and begins to beat his fellow slaves and eat and drink with drunkards; 50 the master of that slave will come on a day when he does not expect him and at an hour which he does not know, 51 and will cut him in pieces and assign him a place with the hypocrites; in that place there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth."
--Matthew 24 NASB

Here "begins to beat his fellow slaves" stands for every kind of mistreatment of other people, thus even simply is the epitome for what is evil.

But to get even more, the full import, one could realize that there are more than only obvious old forms of slavery -- there are various (newer) forms that aren't so well recognized as older forms. For instance, underpaying employees compared to normal wages because some circumstance makes it possible to abuse them in that way -- such as underpaying women, or 'illegal immigrants', or simply a group of employees the employer craftily realizes have a mental or emotional weakness, so that they can be taken advantage of, so then that employer intentionally underpays (even much less than their productivity would normally earn in a time and place, even sometimes 1/2 as much for example), with the expectation this wrong can be gotten away with. Other forms of abuse by employers are also well known, from verbal abuse designed to break down workers mentally, to simply subjecting them to easily avoided hazardous conditions for lack of normal safety measures other companies use, etc., ad infinitum.

These are all instances of beating slaves. Christ chose "beating slaves" as the representation for all evils people do to others under them.

How would all the lengthy range of wrongs people do to others ever be changed?

A huge proliferation of detailed laws may seem as if it's the effective way.

Until the rich business owners simply bribe the law makers or enforcers, or simply invent a new way around the new law. (example: just invent a new mortgage scheme to trick some home buyers and investors in mortgaged backed securities)

What would really work?

What can only truly improve how we treat others is real change in the heart. New laws will simply be circumvented as long as the heart aims to take advantage of others.

What would truly change the heart of a person though? If one really considers that, then they could begin to understand more in the New Testament. They may begin to be able to realize why it is necessary for Christ to do as He did. His way is even the only way that works.

I first began to realize just one small part of this long ago, when I realized that in Northern Ireland that only forgiveness, unearned, would ever give them a chance at lasting peace, and not any other thing, not deterrence, not walls, not gifts, nothing else but what Jesus actually says in the gospels even: to forgive, and to love one's enemies, the other side.

Some things Jesus said that had made little sense to me before began to finally make sense.

After 5 hot wars, Egypt and Israel make the unexpectedly-effective peace, the Camp David Accords, in which, impossibly seeming, the former enemies actually hugged. It was surprising to anyone paying attention, what Carter (who is long lived and continuing various Christian activities) had helped make happen, except perhaps less so to people that are accustomed to Christ's way (what at that time I barely was, only knowing the words without understanding yet).

After confronting each other for nearly 31 years as hostile neighbors, Egypt and Israel signed a formal treaty at the White house today to establish peace and "normal and friendly relations."

On this chilly early spring day, about 1,500 invited guests and millions more watching television saw President Anwar el-Sadat of Egypt and Prime Minister Menachem Begin of Israel put their signatures on the Arabic, Hebrew and English versions of the first peace treaty between Israel and an Arab country.

President Carter who was credited by both leaders for having made the agreement possible, signed, as a witness, for the United States. In a somber speech he said, "Peace has come."
Egypt and Israel Sign Formal Treaty, Ending a State of War After 30 Years; Sadat and Begin Praise Carter's Role


What's the most surprising perhaps is how the former enemies were so warm towards each other.

Do you know they actually hugged?
Flashback: How Carter Brokered Mideast Peace Accords

Sadat would later pay with his mortal life for it all.
(this act of forgiveness will count strongly in his favor though according to Bible Gateway passage: Romans 2:6-16 - New International Version)
 
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2PhiloVoid

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(shrug) Okay. Post references if you want them addressed.
Alright. Shall we take the references one at a time? If feel that would be best. How about you?

That's strange, because I seem to remember you saying there was nothing you liked more than ripping up atheist's arguments.
Oh, I most definitely do! And I'll forthrightly admit that my enjoyment in contending with atheistic, even anti-theistic, arguments only comes out of an Obi-Wan Kenobi kind of defensiveness ... and maybe also by way of some of his character's apparent over-confidence. :rolleyes: While that may sound self-deprecating in some small way, it can also mean that I know an over-confident person when I see one. As they say, "It takes one to know one when he sees it..."

Whatever the case may be, I'll just keep bleating with glee that, "...Sith Lords are our specialty!" :D And if I just happen to lose my head in the process of interlocution, then so be it!

In this case, it's a simple question with a simple answer. If you disagree with the answer, you have to show why.
I think what's really annoying you is you'd like to disagree with it, but can't.
Au contraire! I can very much find it in myself to disagree with you. The question isn't whether or not "I can," but whether or not I think your recalcitrance is worth the time engagement. So, you tell me. Is it?

Of course it makes sense. Isn't it possible to believe that the Christian version God exists, but decide not to follow Him? Funny that nobody ever does, though; it's either (a) people who believe in the Christian God for emotional reasons,
...yes, but that's an oversimplified excuse of an explanation, really. That's on a par with Christians claiming that the only reason atheists are atheists is because they're all sociopaths, incapable of healthy emotions and relational connections. We know that is false, likewise.

(b) people who believe in other gods for emotional reasons,
... well, Kierkegaard and Pascal do say that these things are Subjective ... but not in the colloquial way, of course.

or (c) people who believe in no gods at all for intellectual reasons.
Sure. It's just that some of those supposed "intellectual" reasons aren't so inescapably free of emotions from living experiences.


Just as I said.
Kind ... of. ~

In this case, we both agree that to find whether God approves of slavery or not you should look to His words in the Bible. The problem is, you don't like what they say.
Uh, yeah. There's lots of things the Bible says that, at heart, we don't like. Otherwise, we wouldn't be 'sinners,' now would we? Yet with that said, I don't want to equivocate, so I'll just agree with you that slavery is a questionable institution, especially so depending upon the exact version and structure and culture and actual lived morals that exude from the slavery being scrutinized. I mean, it's NOT as is one slavery is the same as every other slavery. To say that would be to ignore the truths of history, and I'm sure atheists don't want to do that ... :rolleyes:


Uh-huh. References if you want this to be taken seriously.
And what kind of 'reference' will you take seriously?

That's a bit melodramatic.
Uh-no, not really. Satan is portrayed as using his own hermeneutic. You have read the account of Jesus' 40 day wandering and testing in the desert, haven't you? Can you honestly say that your style of appropriation of Biblical verses doesn't resemblance that of Satan? If you're use of Scripture is different than his, then please do tell!
 
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PhantomGaze

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Thank you that. Very funny.
So you'd like to know the context? But of course. It was God telling the Israelites the right and proper way to live their lives. In other words, it was God telling them to take, keep and punish slaves.

Strange, I could swear I've never seen that conversation in the Bible. Could you provide me the chapter and verse where the Israelites inquire of God as to the ethical nature of slavery? I'm also not sure why you think setting limits on a practice is an endorsement of it, but it's irrelevant anyway, because in the Christian Revelation, Israel's past is supposed to be seen in the light of God's future, and as early as the Book of Genesis we can see that this is the greater context of the Bible. You seem very intent on arguing that God endorses slavery. I think it would be more accurate to say Israelite law has in the past endorsed slavery, although even that is technically debatable depending upon what you mean by endorsed.

You clearly how very little of the history of slavery and abolition. Slavery was reestablished as a booking business by Christian countries, and while the abolition movement was largely Christian, so we're it's opponents, who could make a persuasive case that slavery was God's will, simply by quoting the Bible.
Clearly it wasn't persuasive enough.

Okay. I'll play this game. So the Bible is a story of moral instruction? In that case, it begins by saying that slavery is not only permissible, but right and proper and to be encouraged. It never rescinds or contradicts this, and continues to encourage it even in the New Testament.

No, the Bible doesn't say anything about slavery at its beginning. It goes through the Creation, the Fall, and sets up the stage for us to view God's work to restore humanity.

I assume you mean when it first begins to speak of slavery, although that's not really true either, because the Israelites were slaves in Genesis, and it's pretty clear slavery doesn't have a good light shed on it. Using terms like "encourage" is also rather suspicious. They certainly practiced it, that doesn't mean they thought it was some great moral good. The concept of Jubilee, and Israel's history and view of their place in the cosmos certainly seem to contradict the idea that they thought slavery is a moral good. You seem to be ignoring pretty much everything about the Bible, its context and meaning save a few proof-texts which is widely considered horrible methodology.

And He did have quite a lot to say about various evils, didn't He? And yet Jesus never once mentioned slavery, except to praise and encourage it.
Well, we don't really know that. All we know is the gospel writers didn't include it.

Also to say that Jesus endorsed slavery sounds like some intense textual misreading (I'd imagine something along the lines of "the Greatest among you must be a servant" passage). I honestly can't take that seriously. You can't actually expect me to take that seriously.

YEs. All christians, even slaves.

Good so then you agree God doesn't endorse slavery.

Yes. I take the Bible at its word.

Is this some kind of virtue signalling?

Nonsense! sheer supposition. must go now.

Is it really? It's not a secret or a debate that our culture has already abandoned a good number of Christian values. You don't already see the beginnings of this?
 
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PhantomGaze

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Sorry. Back again now. I had something of a trip to make. Now then, to return to our conversation:

First, how can you know about a history that never happened? If Christianity had not got lucky and become the dominant religion, if pagan polytheism had remained the rule, how can you know that an abolitionist movement would not have come to be?
Different value systems. Pagans viewed defeated peoples as intrinsically inferior. Christianity viewed all people as equal. This isn't really so difficult.

Second, there are plenty of anti-slavery influences outside of Christianity. Slave uprisings in non-Christian lands; the French Revolution, and the Enlightenment.
Which also inherited their values from Christianity.

Third, while many Christians may have decided that Christianity required them to be abolitionists, they were in error; as we've seen in this thread, Christianity has nothing but good to say about slavery.
No, you've been repeatedly educated in this thread about why that is wrong.

First, this has nothing to do with whether or not the Bible endorses slavery.
This has to do with keeping slavery eradicated. For societies without a basis for human rights, those rights are merely an inconvenient belief for their totalitarian states and are typically ignored.
Second, no, we wouldn't. Although Christianity has, of course, influenced the history of the western world, it is quite incorrect to say that our current moral outlook is based on Christianity.

It is becoming less so, but our basis of human rights, and equality and the value of minorities and the disenfranchised finds its roots there.
 
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Further back in time in the Old Testament there were provisions for when slaves were offered freedom and if it happened that the slaves did not want freedom, how they could be given a permanent place as a slave.
I think you may be referring to Exodus 21, in which a slave is offered the chance to go free but may say he doesn't wish to. Of course, the reason he didn't wish to go free might be because his wife and children are still slaves; if so, this would make this an appalling example of blackmail.

Jesus chose in particular the instance of mistreating slaves as the epitome of evil, to represent all manner of evil, as discussed above once, so let me just quote the passage:
That doesn't make sense. Slaves beating slaves is the epitome of evil? It looks more like the passage you are quoting is a parable, in which Jesus is saying that Christians should be always ready, and that it is sinful to not be ready when God calls you.

I don't mean to be offensive at all - but way back in this thread I pointed out that the question "Does the Bible endorse slavery?" is a very simple one, simply answered by showing the many places where itdoes exactly that. I also said that apologists for the Bible were forced to overcomplicate this simple question in order to try to find ways around it. We can see that at work in this answer. Please don't take offense at me saying this. When the Bible includes passages like this, there is simply no other option but to say that it is pro-slavery, and that anyone who denies it simply doesn't want to see the truth.


“Thy bond-men and thy bond-maids which thou shalt have, shall be of the heathen that are round about you: of them shall ye buy bond-men and bond-maids. Moreover, of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land. And they shall be your possession. And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession, they shall be your bond-man forever.”
—Leviticus 25:44-46

and

“When a man strikes his slave, male or female, with a rod and the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. But if the slave survives a day or two, he is not to be punished; for the slave is his money.”
—Exodus 21:20-21 (RSV)

and

Slaves, be obedient to those who are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in the sincerity of your heart, as to Christ; not by way of eyeservice, as men-pleasers, but as slaves of Christ, doing the will of God from the heart.
Ephesians 6.

and

Slaves, in all things obey those who are your masters on earth, not with external service, as those who merely please men, but with sincerity of heart, fearing the Lord. Whatever you do, do your work heartily, as for the Lord rather than for men, knowing that from the Lord you will receive the reward of the inheritance It is the Lord Christ whom you serve.
Colossians 3.

and

Servants, be submissive to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and gentle, but also to those who are unreasonable. For this finds favor, if for the sake of conscience toward God a person bears up under sorrows when suffering unjustly.
1 Peter 2

It really is a very simple question: does the Bible have a positive view of slavery?
There is no way you can look at the above verses, and other verses like them, and say no.
 
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Oh, I most definitely do! And I'll forthrightly admit that my enjoyment in contending with atheistic, even anti-theistic, arguments only comes out of an Obi-Wan Kenobi kind of defensiveness ... and maybe also by way of some of his character's apparent over-confidence. :rolleyes: While that may sound self-deprecating in some small way, it can also mean that I know an over-confident person when I see one. As they say, "It takes one to know one when he sees it..."

Whatever the case may be, I'll just keep bleating with glee that, "...Sith Lords are our specialty!" :D And if I just happen to lose my head in the process of interlocution, then so be it!
That is very sweet.
Au contraire! I can very much find it in myself to disagree with you. The question isn't whether or not "I can," but whether or not I think your recalcitrance is worth the time engagement. So, you tell me. Is it?
First of all, I'm not being recalcitrant. I'm just sticking to the facts. If you wish to argue them, feel free. I will be happy to listen, and to respond.

...yes, but that's an oversimplified excuse of an explanation, really. That's on a par with Christians claiming that the only reason atheists are atheists is because they're all sociopaths, incapable of healthy emotions and relational connections. We know that is false, likewise.
Let's leave this for the moment. I can only discuss so many side issues at once.

Sure. It's just that some of those supposed "intellectual" reasons aren't so inescapably free of emotions from living experiences.
The atheist's argument is quite simple: lacking evidence for believing in God, I don't.

Uh, yeah. There's lots of things the Bible says that, at heart, we don't like. Otherwise, we wouldn't be 'sinners,' now would we? Yet with that said, I don't want to equivocate, so I'll just agree with you that slavery is a questionable institution, especially so depending upon the exact version and structure and culture and actual lived morals that exude from the slavery being scrutinized. I mean, it's NOT as is one slavery is the same as every other slavery. To say that would be to ignore the truths of history, and I'm sure atheists don't want to do that ... :rolleyes:
While it is certainly true that there are different scenarios that might exist under the heading of "slavery", some of them relatively benign and some appallingly evil, it's quite clear that the Bible sanctions and depicts a morally unacceptable form.

And what kind of 'reference' will you take seriously?
Quotes from the Bible to back up your case that the Bible does not endorse slavery.

Uh-no, not really. Satan is portrayed as using his own hermeneutic. You have read the account of Jesus' 40 day wandering and testing in the desert, haven't you? Can you honestly say that your style of appropriation of Biblical verses doesn't resemblance that of Satan? If you're use of Scripture is different than his, then please do tell!
Certainly. What Satan was doing was basing each of his arguments on a single idea, that Jesus then refuted with Bible quotes. That's actually what we're doing here. My position is backed up with references from the Bible and yours (and others in this thread) are not.
 
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Strange, I could swear I've never seen that conversation in the Bible. Could you provide me the chapter and verse where the Israelites inquire of God as to the ethical nature of slavery?
No. You've never seen that exact conversation in the Bible. I was using a metaphor. What you've seen in the Bible is:

“Thy bond-men and thy bond-maids which thou shalt have, shall be of the heathen that are round about you: of them shall ye buy bond-men and bond-maids. Moreover, of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land. And they shall be your possession. And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession, they shall be your bond-man forever.”
Leviticus 25:44-46
and
“When a man strikes his slave, male or female, with a rod and the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. But if the slave survives a day or two, he is not to be punished; for the slave is his money.”
Exodus 21:20-21 (RSV)
and
Slaves, be obedient to those who are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in the sincerity of your heart, as to Christ; not by way of eyeservice, as men-pleasers, but as slaves of Christ, doing the will of God from the heart.
Ephesians 6.
and
Slaves, in all things obey those who are your masters on earth, not with external service, as those who merely please men, but with sincerity of heart, fearing the Lord. Whatever you do, do your work heartily, as for the Lord rather than for men, knowing that from the Lord you will receive the reward of the inheritance It is the Lord Christ whom you serve.
Colossians 3.
and
Servants, be submissive to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and gentle, but also to those who are unreasonable. For this finds favor, if for the sake of conscience toward God a person bears up under sorrows when suffering unjustly.
1 Peter 2

There's only one reasonable way to look at passages like those, and it's to believe that they are saying that the Bible says that slaves can be captured, bought, sold and punished, and that God wants them to be obedient to their masters.

I'm also not sure why you think setting limits on a practice is an endorsement of it, but it's irrelevant anyway,
A moment. It may be that there were worse and more despicable systems of slavery than the one described by the Bible, but that is hardly an excuse. At best, you're making the same argument as the pro-slavery Christians of the antebellum era - that slavery was a good thing, providing it was properly conducted.

because in the Christian Revelation, Israel's past is supposed to be seen in the light of God's future, and as early as the Book of Genesis we can see that this is the greater context of the Bible. You seem very intent on arguing that God endorses slavery. I think it would be more accurate to say Israelite law has in the past endorsed slavery, although even that is technically debatable depending upon what you mean by endorsed.
You're quite wrong. I don't care in the slightest whether the Bible is pro- or anti-slavery. I just recognise what it does say, and am stating the case.

Clearly it wasn't persuasive enough.
Not everyone has to agree for something for it to be true. Besides which, the Bible was wrong. Slavery is a bad thing. We all agree on that. The slaveholders of the South were morally wrong - but scripturally correct.

No, the Bible doesn't say anything about slavery at its beginning. It goes through the Creation, the Fall, and sets up the stage for us to view God's work to restore humanity.
I assume you mean when it first begins to speak of slavery, although that's not really true either, because the Israelites were slaves in Genesis, and it's pretty clear slavery doesn't have a good light shed on it. Using terms like "encourage" is also rather suspicious. They certainly practiced it, that doesn't mean they thought it was some great moral good. The concept of Jubilee, and Israel's history and view of their place in the cosmos certainly seem to contradict the idea that they thought slavery is a moral good. You seem to be ignoring pretty much everything about the Bible, its context and meaning save a few proof-texts which is widely considered horrible methodology.
I wonder if you can see how very, very weak this argument is? Do you think that just because you can say something in response to another point of view, that yours is correct?
No, the Bible doesn't start, on the first page, by proclaiming slavery. But, in multiple instances, it does speak of slavery, setting up rules for it, and showing absolutely no disapproval of it.

Well, we don't really know that. All we know is the gospel writers didn't include it.
Good. So, then, we agree that the Bible is pro-slavery.

Also to say that Jesus endorsed slavery sounds like some intense textual misreading (I'd imagine something along the lines of "the Greatest among you must be a servant" passage). I honestly can't take that seriously. You can't actually expect me to take that seriously.
You could be right about this one. Jesus didn't actually say much at all about slavery. But he did say a lot about other things which he thought were wrong, and never said a word against the slave trade. In addition, the Apostles did the same, and they did sometimes praise slavery. The only inference we can draw is that the Bible - both Old and New Testaments - was pro-slavery.

Good so then you agree God doesn't endorse slavery.
Not in the slightest. You should be aware that when Paul said "neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male or female," he was speaking about the issue of circumcision. Paul was saying, "It doesn't matter where you came from or what your position is, you are all Christians". This was not, in any sense, saying that Jews should speak Greek, that women should become men, or that all slaves should be freed. Go and read Galatians, and you'll see.

Is this some kind of virtue signalling?
No. Just the facts. If you want to know if the Bible endorses slavery, then just read it, and you'll see that it does.

Is it really? It's not a secret or a debate that our culture has already abandoned a good number of Christian values. You don't already see the beginnings of this?
What you said was:
"In other words, it was the West's adoption of Christian values that caused us to eventually abandon slavery. The pagan world certainly wasn't going to. If we eliminate Christianity as you seem to hope we do, we lose the meta-ethical basis for the eradication of slavery."
At the time, I had to leave to catch a bus to the airport, so my answer was cut short. Still, "Nonsense! Sheer supposition," is the essence. The full answer should have been:
First, it wasn't the West's adoption of Christian values that caused us to abandon slavery. While Christianity had an enormous impact on western culture, the question is far more complicated than that, with many factors in play.
Second, there's no way you could have known what the pagan world, in the hypothetical situation of it continuing, might or might not have done.
Third, I've shown throughout this whole thread (although you may not have believed it) that slavery is based on the Bible, and that the abolitionist side simply interpreted the Bible to suit their (superior) morals.
Fourth, that has nothing to do with the subject of this discussion: is the Bible pro-slavery or not?
 
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Halbhh

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I think you may be referring to Exodus 21, in which a slave is offered the chance to go free but may say he doesn't wish to. Of course, the reason he didn't wish to go free might be because his wife and children are still slaves; if so, this would make this an appalling example of blackmail.


That doesn't make sense. Slaves beating slaves is the epitome of evil? It looks more like the passage you are quoting is a parable, in which Jesus is saying that Christians should be always ready, and that it is sinful to not be ready when God calls you.

I don't mean to be offensive at all - but way back in this thread I pointed out that the question "Does the Bible endorse slavery?" is a very simple one, simply answered by showing the many places where itdoes exactly that. I also said that apologists for the Bible were forced to overcomplicate this simple question in order to try to find ways around it. We can see that at work in this answer. Please don't take offense at me saying this. When the Bible includes passages like this, there is simply no other option but to say that it is pro-slavery, and that anyone who denies it simply doesn't want to see the truth.


“Thy bond-men and thy bond-maids which thou shalt have, shall be of the heathen that are round about you: of them shall ye buy bond-men and bond-maids. Moreover, of the children of the strangers that do sojourn among you, of them shall ye buy, and of their families that are with you, which they begat in your land. And they shall be your possession. And ye shall take them as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession, they shall be your bond-man forever.”
—Leviticus 25:44-46

and

“When a man strikes his slave, male or female, with a rod and the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. But if the slave survives a day or two, he is not to be punished; for the slave is his money.”
—Exodus 21:20-21 (RSV)

and

Slaves, be obedient to those who are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in the sincerity of your heart, as to Christ; not by way of eyeservice, as men-pleasers, but as slaves of Christ, doing the will of God from the heart.
Ephesians 6.

and

Slaves, in all things obey those who are your masters on earth, not with external service, as those who merely please men, but with sincerity of heart, fearing the Lord. Whatever you do, do your work heartily, as for the Lord rather than for men, knowing that from the Lord you will receive the reward of the inheritance It is the Lord Christ whom you serve.
Colossians 3.

and

Servants, be submissive to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and gentle, but also to those who are unreasonable. For this finds favor, if for the sake of conscience toward God a person bears up under sorrows when suffering unjustly.
1 Peter 2

It really is a very simple question: does the Bible have a positive view of slavery?
There is no way you can look at the above verses, and other verses like them, and say no.

Instead of quoting to me the Old Testament verses from Exodus we both by now (or long ago perhaps for both of us) know like the backs of our hands...why not try to figure out what I'm trying to say if it seems so unclear (which might just be me writing unclearly)?

Ask questions for instance.

And perhaps better: Here's a good question to think on --

Have you wondered to yourself yet: "Why did Paul and Peter write to converted slaves/servants to remain with their masters?"

Why? If they were already slaves....

....then....?

??

Merely telling a 'slave' to continue to be a 'slave' would be...like like telling a laundry maid to continue washing clothes?

Would one write to a laundry maid and say "continue washing clothes" if the laundry maid had been continuing as normal already?

It would seem a pointless instruction....
 
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Instead of quoting to me the Old Testament verses from Exodus we both by now (or long ago perhaps for both of us) know like the backs of our hands...why not try to figure out what I'm trying to say if it seems so unclear (which might just be me writing unclearly)?

Ask questions for instance.

And perhaps better: Here's a good question to think on --

Have you wondered to yourself yet: "Why did Paul and Peter write to converted slaves/servants to remain with their masters?"

Why? If they were already slaves....

....then....?

??

Merely telling a 'slave' to continue to be a 'slave' would be...like like telling a laundry maid to continue washing clothes?

Would you write to a laundry maid and say "continue washing clothes" if the laundry maid had been continuing as normal already?

It would seem a pointless instruction...unless there is actually a reason for it, because something big had happened and changed everything.

Right?
Halbhh, I would like to thank you for the courteous way in which you have approached this conversation. It's a pleasure talking to you, whether we agree or not.
 
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Instead of quoting to me the Old Testament verses from Exodus we both by now (or long ago perhaps for both of us) know like the backs of our hands...why not try to figure out what I'm trying to say if it seems so unclear (which might just be me writing unclearly)?

Ask questions for instance.

And perhaps better: Here's a good question to think on --

Have you wondered to yourself yet: "Why did Paul and Peter write to converted slaves/servants to remain with their masters?"

Why? If they were already slaves....

....then....?

??

Merely telling a 'slave' to continue to be a 'slave' would be...like like telling a laundry maid to continue washing clothes?

Would one write to a laundry maid and say "continue washing clothes" if the laundry maid had been continuing as normal already?

It would seem a pointless instruction....
To respond to your question, however, I would say there is an extremely simple answer, and it is this: Paul was telling slaves that they should not try to run away or rebel. It may be that Paul sincerely thought that God wanted slaves to serve their masters as some sort of allegory for the way Christians serve God; or perhaps there was a tactical element to this, with Paul not wanting to cause trouble for himself by inciting riots.

In either case, I think it's clear that there is a pretty good reason why you might say "God wants you to serve your master and work well" to a slave, but not to a laundry maid - because slaves, often for good reasons, were prone to disobedience.
 
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Different value systems. Pagans viewed defeated peoples as intrinsically inferior. Christianity viewed all people as equal. This isn't really so difficult.
Yes, it is.
First, you've just committed a huge oversimplification, on both sides. Second, we have no way of knowing how pagan views may have changed over time.
Which also inherited their values from Christianity.
It's fair to say that Christianity had an impact on western culture, but again, you simplify the case too much.
No, you've been repeatedly educated in this thread about why that is wrong.
I can't stop you believing whatever you wish to believe, of course.
This has to do with keeping slavery eradicated. For societies without a basis for human rights, those rights are merely an inconvenient belief for their totalitarian states and are typically ignored.
But that's not what we're discussing here. We're talking about whether or not the Bible endorses slavery.
It is becoming less so, but our basis of human rights, and equality and the value of minorities and the disenfranchised finds its roots there.
That is not inconsistent with the Bible supporting slavery. After all, the governing principle most often demonstrated in the Bible is a divine monarchy, not democracy. In any case, this still has nothing to do with whether or not the Bible supports slavery.
 
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Halbhh

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To respond to your question, however, I would say there is an extremely simple answer, and it is this: Paul was telling slaves that they should not try to run away or rebel. It may be that Paul sincerely thought that God wanted slaves to serve their masters as some sort of allegory for the way Christians serve God; or perhaps there was a tactical element to this, with Paul not wanting to cause trouble for himself by inciting riots.

In either case, I think it's clear that there is a pretty good reason why you might say "God wants you to serve your master and work well" to a slave, but not to a laundry maid - because slaves, often for good reasons, were prone to disobedience.

Can you notice an interesting implication from verses like these --

1 All who are under the yoke of slavery should consider their masters worthy of full respect, so that God’s name and our teaching may not be slandered. [why write to slaves many in this thread suggest are 'beaten' (if 'misbehaving') that they should 'respect' their masters???.... Is it that they were not beaten?.... Think a minute about this. you should arrive at an 'ah' moment....] 2 Those who have believing masters should not show them disrespect just because they are fellow believers. [again, same question] Instead, they should serve them even better because their masters are dear to them as fellow believers and are devoted to the welfare of their slaves."

Odd instructions to slaves that were assumed to be 'beaten' if they disobeyed or were disrespectful....eh?

And, more: Why even the general direction of these instructions be given at all, also?? That's truly a 2nd question --
If among believers the master/slave relationship had been radically changed and totally unlike something in the Old Testament...

Then, what's to even keep the slaves in slavery at all?

ah! Could it be that they could in fact merely leave or some other radical new thing, like simply refuse to do some things asked to do, take up new liberties, decide on their own breaktimes?.... The implications are extensive.

:)

Are we noticing that is seems the old slavery has been rather changed? Are there some new implications here to learn?
 
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...so it sounds to me like there are some aesthetic qualities tied into the overall moral matrix that sits within our individual skulls.

So, would you say that you 'feel' that your own moral intuition are merely a heuristic, or should they have some prescriptive quality inherent to them by which you should make other people aware who may not share your own moral predilections?
It's both, kind of. Ultimately, moral intuitions are just feelings, but they're feelings that orient us toward the success of the group before success of the individual, and that in turn facilitates the success of the individual. Morality is a measure of an action's usefulness to your community/society's well-being, so if you care about your society, then it follows that you should behave morally, and that's where the prescriptive element comes in. For those who do not care about their society, it is still in their interest to be invested in its well-being, and those who already are should tell them as much. So as long as someone has some degree of self-interest, morality will be compelling to them for purely practical reasons. It doesn't have to go any deeper than that, and I don't think it helps to, either.

That's something to keep in mind, BUT I think it is even more dangerous to displace the centrality of Human Significance with that of Human Well-being ... because without the first, the second is left to our subjective intuitions and faulty moral motivations, wouldn't you say?
I think having human well-being as an ultimate goal of morality implies human significance rather than replacing it as central to moral endeavors. On top of declaring our significance, it orients us toward a common goal that we all want and need. Not everything can be neatly quantified as better for well-being than another, but them's the breaks.

True enough. I won't hedge from agreeing with you that my moral point of view does require some notional acceptance, at the least, that God exists, such as even Immanuel Kant would say. But, then, what would Kant say to you position, I wonder?
Your guess is probably better than mine!

... not quite. The 'problem' here is that some of the conceptual ethical confusion here comes by way of what is imported from our respective metaphysics and epistemologies as they play 'within' our respective attempts to rationalize our respective moralities. In the Bible, God is owner of everything (implying the possibility that we are 'owned' by Him, too), and Satan is a spiritual, maybe even a physical, enslaver. So, the question comes down to, "Who we gonna serve? God or Satan?"
This "spiritual" form of ownership/slavery you describe us as being engaged in with either God or Satan isn't the kind of slavery I was objecting to with the owner/slave dynamic. I could do that, but that would take us down another rabbit hole. Being nonhuman, God wouldn't have any reason to feel compelled by secular morality anyway, so while it's valid to judge God's actions morally, it's not going to influence his decisions. However, there is another owner/slave dynamic that I find irredeemable seemingly allowed by God in the Bible, and that's in Exodus 21:20, as we're all too familiar with. If you can smooth out the fact that masters could beat their slaves as long as they survived the beating for more than a day, we can be done here. I don't see any circumstances in which that could be considered moral based on the standards I have provided, but I'm open-minded.

I'm not worried about Occam's Razor in this assessment between us because I don't think it applies; in fact, even skeptics I've come across have admitted that the razor can be overused.
Well, the only reason we're in an extended discussion about morality here in a thread about Biblical slavery is because you challenged atheists to back up their moral reasoning for rejecting slavery, and I took you up on it, adding that I could do it while requiring fewer facts/beliefs. Maybe it's just because I intuitively pick battles I think I can win, but if you're admitting Occam's razor favors my position on morality even if it doesn't indicate that it's more likely to be true, I think I've been successful. Cake for everyone!

The problem here is that you have some atheists who think the consequences are ONLY "not getting a ticket," with other people's safety not coming into question. For Christians, other people's well-being in various decisions is not optional, and if they fail to take into account other people's well-being--as God/Christ defines it--then they are morally culpable in various ways.
For every atheist who disregards societal well-being in the absence of direct consequences, there are Christians who also disregard other people's well-being and tell themselves it's OK because they'll confess later. It's one thing to understand what's moral and what's not, and it's another thing to be sufficiently motivated to act morally. I don't think putting "compulsory" into the definition of morality actually makes it more compelling in practice.

...I wouldn't say that "ALL" of our attempts at enforcing morality have merely been attempts to create a society that bears out...

Let's face it; all moral attempts to reform society have not been equal, and some shouldn't even count as attempts at "creating" a better society.
That's a good point, I think what I had said was just a truism that would reject all reformation attempts that didn't bear out as immoral by definition. That's probably not fair.

...well sure. Even King David, when he was hungry and in dire straights, took the Sacred Bread that was unlawful for him to take to eat ... and God didn't strike him down for it.

But, do you think I go too far when I stop for a stop-sign...................and there's not another car or human soul around for miles? I ask, because I do stop, each and every time, regardless.
Surely it is good practice to obey traffic signs even when there is no immediate urgency to do so, even if only to reinforce your automatic tendency to comply for when it actually does matter.
 
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cvanwey

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The old testament picture is complex, and takes a lot of text/time to play out. Mankind is too often cruel and even evil.

Not only enslaving, but stealing (essentials of life) and slandering, and even worse...raping, murdering, doing false witness even in court where the harm is so much greater than typical slander, etc.

To guide us up out of this normal evil (of that era in humanity) upward from barbarism slowly into the Rule of Law -- where instead of a king as highest, the Law from God is highest -- this is a very hard progression for humanity.

It took not years, but generations.

Even
those with faith in God still failed often.

But much worse were those not believing in God. The greater evils such as total lack of charity (total!), and even...child sacrifice, which when continuing warranted erasing such cultures/cities....

This does not address the observation/question.

God does not consider slavery 'sin.' Otherwise, He would have said so. Again, anything not abolished by God, means He basically condones. And yet, you insinuate progressive revelation. If God does not consider something wrong, there is no 'updates' needed.


The fact you bring up the words 'cruel' and 'evil' might imply this is YOUR interpretation of chattle slavery. Why doesn't God agree with your conclusion regarding chattle slavery?


The progression, slow and painful, upward towards the Rule of Law, in the texts is often 3 steps forward, and 3 steps backward.

Over and over.

So, what was needed was a way to make key changes at very fundamental levels.

Enslavement itself is simply a cruel outcome of something much more serious - - lack of love.

Thus chapters like this below, warranted by this deeper evil of not even loving one's own children (as a root of the more general not-love) --

1“Surely the day is coming; it will burn like a furnace. All the arrogant and every evildoer will be stubble, and the day that is coming will set them on fire,” says the LordAlmighty. “Not a root or a branch will be left to them. 2 But for you who revere my name, the sun of righteousness will rise with healing in its rays. And you will go out and frolic like well-fed calves. 3 Then you will trample on the wicked; they will be ashes under the soles of your feet on the day when I act,” says the Lord Almighty.

4 “Remember the law of my servant Moses, the decrees and laws I gave him at Horeb for all Israel.

5 “See, I will send the prophet Elijah to you before that great and dreadful day of the Lord comes. 6 He will turn the hearts of the parents to their children, and the hearts of the children to their parents; or else I will come and strike the land with total destruction.”

Malachi 4 NIV
(which verse 6 appears again, as regarding John the Baptist's mission in the Gospel of Luke)

This addresses nothing of question number three, from my list of six. Please try again:

3. Your notion of progressive revelation seems odd.
God allows slavery, and does not consider it sin. So why then is there a need for it to later be changed or abolished?

It is not hard. The answer is.... God does not consider chattle slavery a sin. It is instead YOU, whom is attempting to justify 'progressive' efforts to abolish such slavery, when it was never God's intention to consider it sin. Otherwise, it would state as such.

I will keep question number three in the original list for answering. Feel free to ask for help if needed. You are making it too hard, really ;)

Request #10:

1. If you are a Jew, you are not to be enslaved for life. But if you are not a Jew, you can be enslaved for life. If we are 'all one in' with Christ, why the Jewish favoritism? Seems as though Jesus is fond of the flesh, Jewish flesh specifically.

2. God allows slavery then, now, and forever. Any form of slavery is permissible, as slavery is not well defined. God does not consider slavery a sin.

3. Your notion of progressive revelation seems odd. God allows slavery, and does not consider it sin. So why then is there a need for it to later be changed or abolished?

4. God would know people use all forms of slavery. And yet, God never clarifies that any of such slavery is 'wrong.' If God knows humans are either dumb, or self serving, why would God not clarify what type of slavery is not permissible?

5. In affect, what (you) are saying, is that it is the Christians which don't like slavery... Why does Jesus not agree wholeheartedly? Why is it a 'feather in your cap' moment that America abolished slavery, when Jesus could care less if it's abolished? Jesus allows for it.

6. Slaves are considered property (less-than-human). Slave owners are to do with their slaves what they will, as instructed by the NT.
 
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Can you notice an interesting implication from verses like these --
1 All who are under the yoke of slavery should consider their masters worthy of full respect, so that God’s name and our teaching may not be slandered. [why write to slaves many in this thread suggest are 'beaten' (if 'misbehaving') that they should 'respect' their masters???.... Is it that they were not beaten?.... Think a minute about this. you should arrive at an 'ah' moment....] 2 Those who have believing masters should not show them disrespect just because they are fellow believers. [again, same question] Instead, they should serve them even better because their masters are dear to them as fellow believers and are devoted to the welfare of their slaves."
Odd instructions to slaves that were assumed to be 'beaten' if they disobeyed or were disrespectful....eh?
And, more: Why even the general direction of these instructions be given at all, also?? That's truly a 2nd question --
If among believers the master/slave relationship had been radically changed and totally unlike something in the Old Testament...
Then, what's to even keep the slaves in slavery at all?
ah! Could it be that they could in fact merely leave or some other radical new thing, like simply refuse to do some things asked to do, take up new liberties, decide on their own breaktimes?.... The implications are extensive.
:)
Are we noticing that is seems the old slavery has been rather changed? Are there some new implications here to learn?
First of all, Halbhh, I assure you that I did read all of that, and understand your theory. However, I can't say that it strikes me as anything more than "not impossible, but no particular reason to believe it".
Consider: you seem to think it remarkable that the person who wrote this (Paul, wasn't it?) should tell slaves to respect their masters. After all, why should you tell people to respect people who keep people against their will, beating them and abusing them?
Well, because you think that slavery is right, that it's what God wants, because He says so in the Bible, and so you think that slaves actually should obey their masters. Also, he gives the reason in the verse: "so that God's name and our teaching should not be slandered" - presumably he means that it would not look good for the new Christian movement if it was seen to be inciting slaves to rebellion, so please make sure you do your duty as slaves, as God commands you to, and you are sure to be rewarded in heaven.
In short, no, there's nothing remarkable about this passage.

Second - do you notice how tenuous your reasoning is here? You think there might be something slightly suspicious about the way this verse is worded, and you then make a leap of "Could it be...?" logic to the otherwise completely unfounded theory that slaves might not have been slaves after all. As I said, it's not impossible, but there's no reason to believe it at all.

This is basically true for the debate over this whole thread. People may think this is flogging a dead horse, but that's because there's really very little else to say. The Bible does say things about slavery, and they are invariably in support of it, or occasionally neutral (which, in a way, is also in support of it; if you mention moral abominations without condemning them, you're saying you see them as a normal part of everyday life).
On the other hand, there are quite a lot of verses which say, basically, that people should be good to other people. While you and I would quite easily agree that this means people should not have kept slaves, it's quite clear that people in the Bible do not see this as applying to slaves, in the same way that most of us today would say that killing is wrong, but would happily eat a bacon sandwich. Slavery was part of life then, just as legal punishment is for us. The fact that we think you shouldn't hurt people doesn't stop us from imprisoning criminals, or eating animals. We can tell that Biblical people thought the same about slavery, because otherwise they would have said so.

So: if the Bible is pro-slavery, is there any justification for it still? We have seen attempts on this thread to answer that, and they are just as tenuous. God's hands were tied, and He was unable to do away with slavery directly and immediately? That simply doesn't make sense. He's the all-powerful God, and doing away with things He doesn't like is what He does all the time in the Bible. God intended to guide humanity slowly away from slavery? The same; if He had intended that, He would have begun by warning against it, rather than adding rules promoting slavery, which would be used again in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries to prop up another slave empire.

And then, I realised that I was approaching this from the wrong way. There is no way I can convince Christians that the Bible is pro-slavery. And that is because they think God is good. Right?

The logic goes like this:
If God is good, he cannot be in favour of bad things.
Slavery is a bad thing.
Therefore, God cannot be in favour of slavery.

The other side of the argument is:
Slavery is immoral.
Only immoral people are in favour of slavery.
Therefore, God would be immoral if He were in favour of it.

Never mind that the Bible is just about as clear on God being in favour of slavery as it is possible to be. If God were pro-slavery, then He would be an immoral being, and I do not think many Christians want to consider that possibility. Therefore, they must either ignore it, or cling to theories whipped up out of very little evidence, that slavery is part of a secret and massively inefficient plan of God's, or that Biblical slavery was "not that bad", or whatever other alternatives they can try to find.
Also, never mind that "Person X is good, and therefore cannot have done bad things" is backwards thinking; it should of course be, "Let's look at Person X, and see if he is good or bad by the things he - or He - did".

At this point, it might be just as well if we ended the debate, because there really seems very little more to say.
 
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Halbhh

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First of all, Halbhh, I assure you that I did read all of that, and understand your theory. However, I can't say that it strikes me as anything more than "not impossible, but no particular reason to believe it".
Consider: you seem to think it remarkable that the person who wrote this (Paul, wasn't it?) should tell slaves to respect their masters. After all, why should you tell people to respect people who keep people against their will, beating them and abusing them? Well, because you think that slavery is right, that it's what God wants, because He says so in the Bible, and so you think that slaves actually should obey their masters. Also, he gives the reason in the verse: "so that God's name and our teaching should not be slandered" - presumably he means that it would not look good for the new Christian movement if it was seen to be inciting slaves to rebellion, so please make sure you do your duty as slaves, as God commands you to, and you are sure to be rewarded in heaven.

Second - do you notice how tenuous your reasoning is here? You think there might be something slightly suspicious about the way this verse is worded, and you then make a leap of "Could it be...?" logic to the otherwise completely unfounded theory that slaves might not have been slaves after all. As I said, it's not impossible, but there's no reason to believe it at all.

This is basically true for the whole of this debate. People may think this is flogging a dead horse, but that's because there's really very little else to say. The Bible does say things about slavery, and they are invariably in support of it, or occasionally neutral (which, in a way, is also in support of it; if you mention moral abominations without condemning them, you're saying you see them as a normal part of everyday life).
On the other hand, there are quite a lot of verses which say, basically, that people should be good to other people. While you and I would quite easily point out that this means people should not have kept slaves, it's quite clear that people in the Bible do not see this as applying to slaves, in the same way that most of us today would say that killing is wrong, but would happily eat a bacon sandwich.

So: if the Bible is pro-slavery, is there any justification for it still? We have seen attempts on this thread to answer that, and they are just as tenuous. God's hands were tied, and He was unable to do away with slavery directly and immediately? Ridiculous. He's the all-powerful God, and doing away with things He doesn't like is what He does all the time in the Bible. God intended to guide humanity slowly away from slavery? Equally ridiculous; if He had intended that, He would have begun by warning against it, rather than adding rules promoting slavery, which would be used again in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries to prop up another slave empire.

And then, I realised that I was approaching this from the wrong way. There is now way I can convince you that the Bible is pro-slavery. And that is because you think God is good. Right?

The logic goes like this:
If God is good, he cannot be in favour of bad things.
Slavery is a bad thing.
Therefore, God cannot be in favour of slavery.

The other side of the argument is:
Slavery is immoral.
Only immoral people are in favour of slavery.
Therefore, God would be immoral if He were in favour of it.

Never mind that the Bible is just about as clear on God being in favour of slavery as it is possible to be. If God were pro-slavery, then He would be an immoral being, and I do not think many Christians want to consider that possibility. Therefore, they must either ignore it, or cling to theories whipped up out of very little evidence, that slavery is part of a secret and massively inefficient plan of God's, or that Biblical slavery was "not that bad", or whatever other alternatives they can try to find.

At this point, it might be just as well if we ended the debate, because there really seems very little more to say.

I'm aware of how hard it is to see something different than one's preferred view, so I wonder if you could literally absorb all the words (perception is tricky, due to preconception):
"their masters are dear to them as fellow believers and are devoted to the welfare of their slaves."

If you notice, this is saying these believers/converted masters were 'devoted to the welfare of their slaves.'

Just trying to be sure we even notice the words, that's all, as a basis for discussing.

Now you could assume (make an out-there hypothesis) that this was dissembling? I'd not, because for one thing it goes against Occam's Razor first (gets more and more elaborate and complex), and 2nd, is contradicted by other verses in other passages. Even one of them just above in implication:

"Those who have believing masters should not show them disrespect just because they are fellow believers."

So, the slaves would have shown respect to their masters....but....now, they know the master is converted -- so everyone is under a New Boss -- ....and now they know they have new absolute rights they didn't officially have in the relationship before.

They know the score has changed.

They know it's a new day, and the old is dead.

This is why it is necessary to tell them not to begin disrespecting their master (such as an indentured servant in their 5th year, or a slave, or a room-and-board employee, etc.), simply because they know their master is himself under the New Boss.

The New Boss is the Boss.

So, I suggest you need to take a more neutral view, less intent on seeing it a certain way, because that preference to see it a certain way distorts perception, and would prevent full understanding.
 
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Halbhh

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"so that God's name and our teaching should not be slandered"

Among not yet converted people, the overwhelming majority of the general population, as the Christians were a small minority, perhaps we could guess well under 10%, and likely under 5% .
 
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Halbhh

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If God is good, he cannot be in favour of bad things.
Slavery is a bad thing.
Therefore, God cannot be in favour of slavery.

In order to change our tendency to intentionally harm others, do evil, on our own, as we easily can and do because of free ability to think and act, autonomy, God has had to work to change us in our hearts.

What changes people in their hearts?

You know the story of Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., yes?

Do you think his overall life and then death helped to change some hearts, back in the 1970s and 80s, well after he had died?

Trying to ask what you already understand, or need to learn on this.

Or, why did Mahatma Gandhi's non-violent protest overturn British power in India? Without guns?

Do you think -- you yourself -- that if either of them had instead used guns and fighting it would have worked better?

Trying to understand your own point of view.
 
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So, I suggest you need to take a more neutral view, less intent on seeing it a certain way, because that preference to see it a certain way distorts perception, and would prevent full understanding.

This strikes me as ironical in the extreme. I'm not the one who's intent on seeing it any way. You, on the other hand, are a Christian, and presumably see God as a person to be admired. Do you think that might be colouring your own views slightly?

Once again: I have absolutely no preference as to whether or not God supports slavery. To me, it's a matter of indifference. In fact, I'm approaching this rather in the spirit of someone debating a Star Wars fan (philo might like that reference) who insists that Darth Vader was good all along, and was merely biding his time until he could defeat the emperor. It's not totally impossible, it's consistent with the eventual outcome, but it's obviously wrong and motivated by feelings about a person, against all the evidence.
 
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