- Feb 13, 2017
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Show me the Scripture for a private prayer language in an unknown tongue. I say it doesn’t exist clearly in Scripture. Inferences are made on select verses when it could also be read from the perspective of real foreign languages. In fact, this would be the preferred interpretation seeing that a private prayer language is not described clearly in God’s Word. Thus, a private prayer language becomes something extra biblical.
1 Corinthians 14:2 says that tongues is this:
“For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.” (1 Corinthians 14:2).
Yes, there was also an answer from God in tongues.
“In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.” (1 Corinthians 14:21).
But it was interpreted; Otherwise they were to keep silent (1 Corinthians 14:28).
It looks like you are mixing the two types of tongues again. If you never understand that there are two, you will never be able to distinguish the correct interpretation.
I do have a question that has me wondering... Why are you so determined to point out that tongues are actual languages. I'm not disagreeing, but does it have to do with believing people can naturally understand the language? Is that why you discount angelic tongues too? If the language could be understood naturally, which you've already confirmed the Acts 2 account was supernaturally, what difference does it make what language it is if God is the one that it is to?
Next question, are you saying speaking in tongues is NOT for prayer, but, perhaps for preaching to foreigners? I'm not sure why you are questioning "prayer language." Or am I wrong and you know the one from Mark 16:17 is for prayer???
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