StrivingFollower
Active Member
Excerpt from the Antinomian Bible: And after healing the man, Jesus said "Sin some more!"
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Acts 15:21 does not refer to the Noahic law but instead cites the Mosaic law. Taken in proper context the prohibitions announced by James in vs. 19-20 are those sins & practices that the gentiles needed to cease immediately which is joined by the conjunction "For" in v.21 which implies that as the gentiles attend synagogue every Sabbath, they would continue to learn more about the law. In other words, the prohibitions are just the starting point in order to make the law not initially burdensome for them but as the law is read every Sabbath in the synagogue, the gentiles would learn more and begin to apply other aspects of Torah to their lives.Right. The difficulty is that antinomianism is ambiguous. For many it implies that there are no standards for behavior.
But in this discussion it has a narrower meaning, rejection of the Mosaic Law.
My understanding of both Paul and Acts 15 is that that Law is not binding on us. Lutheran and Reformed teach the third use of the Law, which is as a guideline for behavior. We can certainly learn something about God from seeing the Law for the Jewish people. But that Law as a legal body isn't binding on us, because it was part of a covenant that we aren't a party to.
That does not mean that there are no standards for us. Jesus' teachings act as a standard, and Paul's letters give an example of applying that to his congregations' situation.
I don't think you can divide the OT Law into moral and ceremonial parts, and leave the moral parts as laws for us. They are all part of a covenant that we aren't part of. But it is certainly true that the OT Law reflects basic moral principles.
The problem with a division is that none of the NT treatments of the Law use it. Paul never makes that division. He speaks of the Law as a unit. He certainly holds Christians to moral standards, but he doesn't say that those standards due to a part of the OT Law that he considers moral.
Acts 15 doesn't say anything about a division of the Law either. It is generally thought to be based on the Jewish concept of the Noahic law. This is a set of moral principles that apply to all of humanity, because they date to Noah, and thus precede the Mosaic covenant.
I differentiate (as does the Apostle Paul) between God's law and "the law".Just so I understand you, are you claiming that the entirety of the law is abolished?
These verses state the law was our guardian/instructor/tutor before faith came through Jesus Christ. Before faith came, we we held in custody under the law (v.23) however the law (though insufficient to impart righteousness, v.21) is not antithetical to faith in Christ as the law is not contrary to the promises of God (v.21). Thus, though insufficient for the attainment of righteousness, the law was not nullified but fulfilled through Jesus Christ. We are under the law but grace through Christ enables us to obey the law.Are you claiming that we are under the law?
Galatians 3:23-25
Before the coming of this faith, we were held in custody under the law, locked up until the faith that was to come would be revealed. 24 So the law was our guardian until Christ came that we might be justified by faith. 25 Now that this faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian.
One cannot abolish laws against bribery, drunkenness, afflicting widows and orphans, e.t.c., unless one is antinomian.Because I do not advocate violating the moral law. All those things we are to abstain from: Murder, theft, fraud, idolatry, etc.
The Ten Commandments were the Old Covenant, replaced by the New. Believers are now under the Two Great Commandments of love for God and people. And only use the Ten for commentary and instruction. But by living in harmony with the Two Great Commandments, we naturally keep the moral aspects of the Ten without trying.
How does the law conform us to the image of Christ? Is Christ in the image of the law? (nope)We are under the law in the sense that we are being conformed to the image of Christ and we are called to obey God. But we are not under the law as a means of justification.
I am saying it is specific to the law outside the TCs.You don't think that "Ye shall not lie" and "Ye shall not steal" are broad enough to cover fraud?
That is not correct.These verses state the law was our guardian/instructor/tutor before faith came through Jesus Christ. Before faith came, we we held in custody under the law (v.23) however the law (though insufficient to impart righteousness, v.21) is not antithetical to faith in Christ as the law is not contrary to the promises of God (v.21). Thus, though insufficient for the attainment of righteousness, the law was not nullified but fulfilled through Jesus Christ. We are under the law but grace through Christ enables us to obey the law.
How does the law conform us to the image of Christ? Is Christ in the image of the law? (nope)
Paul was quite clear in that he believed that the Law was good and holy and instituted by God to show His standards of holiness. He said that the Law was insufficient to permanently justify anyone because of sin. In other words, the Law was good, but no one was able to keep it.Are you referring to the Ten Commandments, or something else?
(fraud is outside the TCs)
Antinomianism is a later term meaning "against the law". It doesn't mean some act that violates the law, but describes the idea that the entirety of the old testament law is abolished. Hence an individual who is against the law. If the law is abolished there is no sin, so a person can behave themself any way they want to and still be justified.
Is there anyone here who holds to that belief or do you know anyone who does?
Do you wear tassels? (a demand of the law)The Law does not conform us to the image of Christ. The Holy Spirit does. But Christ is the embodiment of the Law. So the be conformed to Christ is also to be conformed to the demands of the Law.
I think he came to set the law aside. This says we are no longer under the law since Christ came.Jesus came and kept the Law, not for us, but for Himself, so He could be the sinless substitute to take God's punishment for our failure to keep the Law.
Paul differentiates between God's law (Rom.7-8), "the law", and Christ’s law. Most notably in the scripture below.Paul was quite clear in that he believed that the Law was good and holy and instituted by God to show His standards of holiness.
I agree that we are not "under the law" by obligation to follow it. This is because we are "under" Christ through faith. But we now have a new heart and spirit and therefore we voluntarily abide in Christ and follow His example of holy living and cheerfully follow His commandments and instructions, not because we are forced by obligation, but we want to glorify His name in the world and not grieve or quench the Holy Spirit within us; or let demons in by sinful living.I think he came to set the law aside. This says we are no longer under the law since Christ came.
Galatians 3:23-25
Before the coming of this faith, we were held in custody under the law, locked up until the faith that was to come would be revealed. 24 So the law was our guardian until Christ came that we might be justified by faith. 25 Now that this faith has come, we are no longer under a guardian.
You had responded originally to my question about whether a poster was referring to "the law" as the Ten Commandments. (or what?) I'm not sure as to what law you are referring to. You eluded to Romans 7+8 earlier. (delight in God's law) Which is different than "the law".I agree that we are not "under the law" by obligation to follow it. This is because we are "under" Christ through faith. But we now have a new heart and spirit and therefore we voluntarily abide in Christ and follow His example of holy living and cheerfully follow His commandments and instructions, not because we are forced by obligation, but we want to glorify His name in the world and not grieve or quench the Holy Spirit within us; or let demons in by sinful living.
No. But we may intelligibly differentiate between ceremonial aspects of the law, such as tassels, and moral aspects of the law - as the NT itself does. It's very poor exegesis and logical argumentation to say that because we no longer wear tassels that therefore we are not under the law in any sense.Do you wear tassels? (a demand of the law)
What is ceremonial about tassels?No. But we may intelligibly differentiate between ceremonial aspects of the law, such as tassels, and moral aspects of the law - as the NT itself does. It's very poor exegesis and logical argumentation to say that because we no longer wear tassels that therefore we are not under the law in any sense.