mmksparbud
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- Dec 3, 2011
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Ok.
But where did the Most High God actually say this? Where does He actually intimate at there being two distinct laws for two distinct peoples? Where does He say that any of those Laws are inapplicable to people who He would call His people.
The Most High God is the authority on the Law.
God said the day would come when there would be a new covenant.
Jer_31:31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
Jer 31:32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD:
Jer 31:33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people
Heb_7:12 For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the
law.
Eph_2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
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