Exodus 3 and the name of G-d

psalm911

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Sorry if I was unclear. I understand the verse, I was asking about your use of the word "prophetically". I believe you are referring to the "Son of Man" words of Jesus but I always look to ask.
With love,
Howard

The reason Jesus referred to him self as the son of man is because he made himself of no reputation. Although being true that he was the son of man through Mary, it is also true that he was the Son of God because that which was conceived in her was of the Holy Ghost.
 
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ewq1938

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The “shem” Elohiym gives Moses in Exodus 3:14 is “hayah asher hayah”.

Just a small side question if you don't mind:

"God" is not God's name yet you type it as "G-D" yet when typing God's actual name you fully spell it? I'm just curious why that is.
 
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Howard Beale

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Just a small side question if you don't mind:

"God" is not God's name yet you type it as "G-D" yet when typing God's actual name you fully spell it? I'm just curious why that is.
God is a term used by almost all English speaking religious. It is a universal with various meanings. Writing "G-d" instead of God is a fairly recent custom in Judaism. Many Jews believe it to be a sign of respect based on Deuteronomy 12:3-4. I guess I do it out of respect and desire not to get involved in the issue because no consensus has been reached by the Jewish community. G-d is a representation of proper name of the Deity as explained below.

Rabbis as well as the cabalists steadfastly maintained their belief in monotheism. Hence they recognized only one proper name for the Deity, considering the other names as appellations or titles signifying divinity, perfection, and power, or as characterizing His acts as observed and appreciated by mankind in the various stages of their development… The name Yhwh is considered as the Name proper; it was known in the earliest rabbinical works simply as the Name [Jewish Encyclopedia 1906]

Hope this helps some.

With love,
Howard
 
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