- Nov 21, 2008
- 51,346
- 10,603
- Country
- United States
- Faith
- SDA
- Marital Status
- Married
Your first two sentences are in conflict with one another. Jesus speaks for Himself best, and here are His words:
"Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to satisfy." (Matthew 5:17)
There it is in black and white, Jesus came to satisfy the Law. Jesus came to satisfy the Prophets.
Concerning Luke 24:27 and Luke 24:44-47, you seem to be attempting to limit the Law. In Luke 24:27, Luke wrote "Then beginning with Moses and with all the prophets, He explained to them the things concerning Himself in all the Scriptures".
Indeed - "in all the scriptures" -- they were aware of it.
Recorded in Luke 24:44 is Jesus saying:
"These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled."
in other words 'scripture' -- which is our source of doctrine according to 2 Tim 3:16.
There is that word fulfilled which is Strongs G4137, and it can be translated with any of these synonyms:
completed
fulfilled
satisfied
When Moral law is "complied with" then its requirement is fulfilled. So then Christ perfectly complied with the command "do not take God's name in vain" ... but did not delete it - simply by complying with it.
Another example of moral law Christ perfectly complied with "honor your father and mother" -- complying with moral law -- does not delete it. Obviously. Hence Eph 6:2 exists.
It sounds like your words try to limit what Jesus said when you write "Jesus is fulfilling the prophecies about Himself written in the Law and Prophets" because Jesus actually said:
"These are My words which I spoke to you while I was still with you, that all things which are written about Me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be satisfied."
indeed predictive law is fulfilled when the event it predicts takes place "Christ our Passover has been slain" 1 Cor 5. And it leaves no "requirement" left for some other person to also "Be the Passover that is slain".
Is there someone here that says the 10 commandments are not about Jesus?
Everyone here agrees that Jesus was not supposed to murder or worship false God's or take God's name in vain--- and neither is anyone else supposed to do that.
Because in the NT "Sin IS transgression of the LAW" 1 John 3:4
And the saints "KEEP the Commandments of God AND their faith in Jesus" Rev 14:12
Romans 13:8-10, The Apostle Paul wrote it precisely as the Holy Spirit had him write it:
"he who loves his neighbor has fulfilled [the] law" (Romans 13:8)
And so also in Matt 22 -- the two great commandments as even the Jews agreed before the cross.
"Love God with all your heart" Deut 6:5 (not even mentioned at all in Rom 13)
and "Love your neighbor as yourself" Lev 19:18 - (also found in Matthew 19 and Rom 13).
These two commands in the law of Moses form the foundation for all others... they do not "delete all others".
There is that word fulfilled which is Strongs G4137,
- to consummate: a number
- to make complete in every particular, to render perfect
- to carry through to the end, to accomplish, carry out, (some undertaking)
Predictive ceremonial law does not work that way - but prescriptive moral law does.
Which means it is "still a sin" to take God's name in vain. Obviously.
In your own reasoning, you try to redefine the words of Jesus. Jesus said:
"Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to satisfy." (Matthew 5:17)
I said -- this which was in fact a quote of you for G4137 only using a part of Strong's definition that you chose not to post.
There is that word fulfilled which is Strongs G4137,
- to consummate: a number
- to make complete in every particular, to render perfect
- to carry through to the end, to accomplish, carry out, (some undertaking)
so then we note:
When it comes to moral law it means to comply with in every respect. As in "Do not take God's name in vain" but it has no connotation at all of "deleting" the command. IN real life we do not delete the speed limit as soon as one person drives right at the speed limit.
"It is finished!" (John 19:30 - Jesus' words on the cross)
Another example of a statement that does not say "as soon as one person does not take God's name in vain - then everyone else is free to do it" -- as we all know.
Your words are not the words of the Apostle John, so here are the Apostle John's words (1 John 3:4-10):
4 Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness.
On the contrary -
4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law. (KJV)
Pick another sword to fall on - that horse is already out of the barn.
In verse 5, the Apostle John states "You know that He appeared in order to take away sins" and the Apostle John can say that because Lord Jesus said that He came to satisfy the Law as well as He came to satisfy the Prophets.
So then to comply with moral law -- fulfills it - but does not allow others to break it. "Not taking God's name in vain" does not delete that moral law - even though it fulfills it.
Just making the obvious point here. No need to get stuck on the easy part.
By the way, your version of verse 4 seems different than the Greek, for the Greek word behind "lawlessness" above is anomia (first occurrance Strongs G458) and anomian (second occurrance Strongs G458). You version puts in law instead of lawlessness. The "a" is "not" and the "nomia" is "law" which arrives at the English word "lawlessness".
My version in that case is King James - perhaps you have heard of it
This should terrify anyone who does not keep the words of Jesus.
In Hebrews 8:6-11 Paul says the Ten Commandments are the Words of Jesus.
When Jesus said "keep the Commandments" in Matt 19 he is asked specifically "which ones" and His answer is right out of the TEN commandments that He spoke at Sinai.
Last edited:
Upvote
0