I recently came across comments by NT Wright about how the NIV translates these verses, particularly the phrase pistis Christou in verse 22 (His comments are not recent they were made in 2009 and I think I recall hearing about it at that time, but not thinking a lot into it). Wright's comments are quite strong. Apparently having at first welcomed the NIV when it came out, as he began to teach from it he became increasing disillusioned with it. He has said people using the NIV alone will have trouble understanding Paul. In fact he puts it more strongly, "that they will never understand what Paul was talking about."
N.T. Wright Slams the NIV – Christian Monthly Standard
I don't want to be controversial, but what I want to ask: is this just a conflict with NT Wright's theology, or is the NIV really deficient in conveying the Apostle Paul's meaning?
I think I was always aware there was a change of preposition in verse 22, from faith of Jesus Christ...[KJV], to faith in Jesus Christ...[NIV] I believe I was aware of that and thought a good deal about it years ago, having only had the KJV during childhood, then coming to the NIV (which I very much liked and still use a good deal).
v22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: for all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God. (KJV)
This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. (NIV)
Later editions of the NIV are slightly different but still have the preposition faith in Jesus.
This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.
Wright from what I can gather would prefer the rendering faithfulness of Jesus Christ.
As these verses are frequently said to be the most important verses in the Bible, it would be good to know which is the best translation of them.
N.T. Wright Slams the NIV – Christian Monthly Standard
I don't want to be controversial, but what I want to ask: is this just a conflict with NT Wright's theology, or is the NIV really deficient in conveying the Apostle Paul's meaning?
I think I was always aware there was a change of preposition in verse 22, from faith of Jesus Christ...[KJV], to faith in Jesus Christ...[NIV] I believe I was aware of that and thought a good deal about it years ago, having only had the KJV during childhood, then coming to the NIV (which I very much liked and still use a good deal).
v22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference: for all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God. (KJV)
This righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. (NIV)
Later editions of the NIV are slightly different but still have the preposition faith in Jesus.
This righteousness is given through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no difference between Jew and Gentile, for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.
Wright from what I can gather would prefer the rendering faithfulness of Jesus Christ.
As these verses are frequently said to be the most important verses in the Bible, it would be good to know which is the best translation of them.
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