Reasons why I believe the KJV is the divinely inspired perfect Word of God.

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Yes, as there are errorsd and mistakes in all translations, as the ONLY inspired Books were the originals, and God preserved to us them in the Original languageGreek/Hebrew texts, not in the 1611 English!

I don't believe the 1611 was the final revision of the KJV for us today. I believe it was the Cambridge Edition version (circa 1900) of the KJV. This is due to the fact that there was no standardization of spelling/grammar yet, and they had yet to perfect the printing process, too. Also, the Apocrypha was not officially removed until 1885, too.

As for contradictions in the KJV:

The KJV is not a salvation issue in most cases. However, errors only exist in the mind of the Christian who desires to see them just as unbelieving skeptics in the Bible desire to see errors in the Bible where there is none.

Here are some explanations to some supposed contradictions that I have explained in the KJV (if you are interested), brother.

https://www.christianforums.com/thr...t-supposed-contradictions-in-the-kjv.8035969/
 
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A Realist

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Again, this is the same ole thing I hear. A person attacks the person rather than the argument, and they think that is sufficient to defend against the actual topic of discussion involving that belief.
Calling KJVO a "belief" is a stretch, IMO. It's more like a conspiracy theory that, as far as I'm concerned, should be thrown into the dark depths of the Conspiracy Theory forum.

But hey, this is your parade. Have fun.
 
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Calling KJVO a "belief" is a stretch, IMO. It's more like a conspiracy theory that, as far as I'm concerned, should be thrown into the dark depths of the Conspiracy Theory forum.

But hey, this is your parade. Have fun.

That's great, but until you can bring forth biblical evidences to prove your case against the idea that God failed to perfectly preserve His Word in our world language today, you are merely offering an opinion with no substance to prove that what you say is in any way true. In my post #1, I provide biblical evidence to prove my case.
 
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Nah, you'll just tell me I'm wrong. I'll save my thoughts for more important and pressing matters.

That's not how I work. I will attempt to go over the logic of my argument with Scripture and our reality if you like. But my guess is that you are not open to this truth at this time in your life. I am not sure the reason (but I know God knows why).

In any event, may God bless you.
 
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Strong in Him

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I cannot mind meld with you so as to teach you what I know. I am hindered by words to convince you of the truth. My suggestion is... "Don't believe me until you have checked everything with Scripture (not just by what I wrote but by what other KJV proponents have wrote." My suggestion is to read with an open mind the KJV Only position and check out their reasons. My suggestion is to do a serious continual prayer for a month, and continually ask God if there is a perfect Word of God for our day in the world language of our day. If you were to do that, I know God will reveal to you the truth that I know.

I don't want to do that.

I am very happy that you enjoy the KJV, that it has helped, and is helping, you to draw closer to God, receive his Spirit and his gifts and live your Christian life; really. But I have received all that too, and every blessing in Christ, without the KJV - through one, or more, or those translations that you refer to as "garbage" and having the devil all over them.

But if you are skeptical and antagonistic and or repulsed by the idea that God preserved His Word for today,

The KJV was not produced until 1611, and you consider even that version to be imperfect.
People were receiving the Gospel, and God's perfect word, way before then.

Jesus IS the Word of God. He spoke only what his Father told him to say - without the help of the KJV.

If you were to click on the spoiler button in my Point #2, you would see the ungodly changes that Modern Translations make via by way of comparison to the King James.

That's my point - compared to the King James.
Your starting point is that the King James is perfect; you won't even consider the fact that it may be the KJV which contains erroneous translations, based on what they had at that time. Language changes, and people make discoveries.

You either did not look at the verses that showed the devil's name being placed in Modern Translations, or you have come up with a work around so as not to see the obvious truth here.

I don't accept that the Lord God would allow the devil's name to be "placed in modern translations" and then save, heal, teach and greatly bless people through those translations.
If God knows that the only perfect translation of his word is the KJV, why doesn't he guide everyone to it/have every other version destroyed?
If you say there are devilish, dirty or tainted versions of Scripture, then, by implication, those Christians who read them are dirty, lacking in discernment and may not even be saved - don't even go there.

The choice is yours to what you desire to see.

Ditto.

If you had said that the FIRST KJV to be produced is perfect, and all versions since are corrupt; you'd still be wrong, but at least it would make some sense.
But you've said that the 1611 KJV, the one authorised by King James, was not perfect. You're saying that a translation can be imperfect, but that subsequent revision can be perfect - just not any translations that were made after the one that you have decided is perfect. ??

The problem is that they cannot be our final word of authority, though.

God's word is my authority; Jesus is THE word, and God's final word.

Their has to be a nailed down final word (that is impartial) that goes beyond what we would want or desire

And how do you propose that can happen, when language changes all the time?

I've no doubt the KJV uses the word "wicked". Do you know what a teenager would say today if you told them they were wicked? They'd think it was a compliment. Same with "let's pray for ....... she's sick"; they would be wondering why you were praying for someone who was really cool.

You have to actually ignore the Bible in it's meanings on numbers.

No, I am aware that in Scripture 7 and 3 are the numbers for God, 6 is the number for man and so on. I know that numbers meant different things to the Jews.

I am just saying that God's primary revelation of himself is not through numbers - it's through creation, through the prophets, through Jesus and through his written and spoken word.
So, for me, any Bible numbers or "hidden code" that teach about God, are suspect. Salvation is neither a maths challenge nor a detective game.
This is especially true in end times theology - go and look at the eschatology board where people are trying to work out the name of 666, or how many days are left til the end, or what Daniel's prophecy means. All have been wrong so far.

There was no standardization of spelling and grammar yet at this time, and the printing process was not perfected yet.

So?
Spelling mistakes or variations do not alter the truth of God's word.
How can they? American spell words differently to the British - but we can all read and know what they mean.

I am sure the term "KJV Only" is the standard understanding as you describe it. But I have taken the meaning of the term "KJV Only" to mean something different. I have taken it to mean that the KJV is my one and ONLY final word of authority on spiritual matters.

If that's what you believe and it works for you; go for it. Though I am slightly puzzled that you are still prepared to consider "dirty" translations - most KJV purists I've come across wouldn't touch them with a barge pole.

I have no problem with people preferring, and using, only one translation of Scripture. What is wrong is the implication that all other, and subsequent, translations are imperfect/tainted/New Age/from the devil. That further implies that the Christians who use them are misguided, unsaved or do not have the truth - you may not be saying that; others have.

This is only because you have limited knowledge on this topic and you have not done the study in comparing the Modern Translations vs. the KJV with an open mind.

Like I said, your starting point is that you are comparing them to the KJV. Your next line of reasoning appears to be "well as they differ from the KJV and the KJV is absolutely, definitely perfect, these other translations must be wrong".

You can't compare with an open mind - you have already decided that one of the translations is perfect.
And why do I need to? I am very happy with the translation I use; that is why I use it.

I am only saying that they are dirt by way of comparison to the KJV because of the corruptions within them.

Like I said, if you're happy to call God's word, "dirt"; up to you.

My King James Bible does not say on the cover.... "The King James Bible: Just a mere translation." It says, "Holy Bible."

So does mine - so do they all.

The word "Holy" suggests something that is divine.

No, "holy" means "set apart".
We are called to be holy 1 Thessalonians 3:3 - we are not divine. In the OT, things were dedicated to God and became sacred and holy; they were not divine. Baptism and communion are not divine - instituted by the Son of God, yes; divine and to be worshipped, no.

God can save people using a prosperity preacher on TV. That does not mean that the prosperity preacher is teaching correctly always. He can point a person to Jesus just as most Bibles can. But I can still say that a prosperity preacher is a false teacher. That does not mean God cannot use imperfect people, things, and institutions to spread the gospel of salvation.

True; God can use anyone, however imperfect, to proclaim his Good News.
But you weren't just talking about bibles that had minor errors in them - you said that the devil was in, and all over, them, and the bibles themselves were unclean and garbage.
These are Bibles with the words "Holy Bible" on the front, btw.

Yes, I am not discounting people were saved through out history before the KJV.

So therefore it cannot be THE only, perfect word of God.

Why it is important to have a KJV is because it leads us to a deeper faith and trust in His Word.

I don't find that to be the case.

In any event, if you still disagree and you have no interest in exploring the truth on whether or not the KJV could be the perfect Word of God for our day, then I think it is best that we agree to disagree in love and respect as fellow believers in Jesus Christ.

I am very interested in the truth.
JESUS is the truth, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of truth and God's word is true. The idea that some Bible, produced only in the 1600s, is the ultimate truth - is not true.

Like I say, I am happy for you to use whichever Bible you please, and don't want to argue you into changing your mind. Just don't imply that you, alone, have/know/follow the truth, and the rest of us don't.
 
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I don't want to do that.

I am very happy that you enjoy the KJV, that it has helped, and is helping, you to draw closer to God, receive his Spirit and his gifts and live your Christian life; really. But I have received all that too, and every blessing in Christ, without the KJV - through one, or more, or those translations that you refer to as "garbage" and having the devil all over them.



The KJV was not produced until 1611, and you consider even that version to be imperfect.
People were receiving the Gospel, and God's perfect word, way before then.

Jesus IS the Word of God. He spoke only what his Father told him to say - without the help of the KJV.



That's my point - compared to the King James.
Your starting point is that the King James is perfect; you won't even consider the fact that it may be the KJV which contains erroneous translations, based on what they had at that time. Language changes, and people make discoveries.



I don't accept that the Lord God would allow the devil's name to be "placed in modern translations" and then save, heal, teach and greatly bless people through those translations.
If God knows that the only perfect translation of his word is the KJV, why doesn't he guide everyone to it/have every other version destroyed?
If you say there are devilish, dirty or tainted versions of Scripture, then, by implication, those Christians who read them are dirty, lacking in discernment and may not even be saved - don't even go there.



Ditto.

If you had said that the FIRST KJV to be produced is perfect, and all versions since are corrupt; you'd still be wrong, but at least it would make some sense.
But you've said that the 1611 KJV, the one authorised by King James, was not perfect. You're saying that a translation can be imperfect, but that subsequent revision can be perfect - just not any translations that were made after the one that you have decided is perfect. ??



God's word is my authority; Jesus is THE word, and God's final word.



And how do you propose that can happen, when language changes all the time?

I've no doubt the KJV uses the word "wicked". Do you know what a teenager would say today if you told them they were wicked? They'd think it was a compliment. Same with "let's pray for ....... she's sick"; they would be wondering why you were praying for someone who was really cool.



No, I am aware that in Scripture 7 and 3 are the numbers for God, 6 is the number for man and so on. I know that numbers meant different things to the Jews.

I am just saying that God's primary revelation of himself is not through numbers - it's through creation, through the prophets, through Jesus and through his written and spoken word.
So, for me, any Bible numbers or "hidden code" that teach about God, are suspect. Salvation is neither a maths challenge nor a detective game.
This is especially true in end times theology - go and look at the eschatology board where people are trying to work out the name of 666, or how many days are left til the end, or what Daniel's prophecy means. All have been wrong so far.



So?
Spelling mistakes or variations do not alter the truth of God's word.
How can they? American spell words differently to the British - but we can all read and know what they mean.



If that's what you believe and it works for you; go for it. Though I am slightly puzzled that you are still prepared to consider "dirty" translations - most KJV purists I've come across wouldn't touch them with a barge pole.

I have no problem with people preferring, and using, only one translation of Scripture. What is wrong is the implication that all other, and subsequent, translations are imperfect/tainted/New Age/from the devil. That further implies that the Christians who use them are misguided, unsaved or do not have the truth - you may not be saying that; others have.



Like I said, your starting point is that you are comparing them to the KJV. Your next line of reasoning appears to be "well as they differ from the KJV and the KJV is absolutely, definitely perfect, these other translations must be wrong".

You can't compare with an open mind - you have already decided that one of the translations is perfect.
And why do I need to? I am very happy with the translation I use; that is why I use it.



Like I said, if you're happy to call God's word, "dirt"; up to you.



So does mine - so do they all.



No, "holy" means "set apart".
We are called to be holy 1 Thessalonians 3:3 - we are not divine. In the OT, things were dedicated to God and became sacred and holy; they were not divine. Baptism and communion are not divine - instituted by the Son of God, yes; divine and to be worshipped, no.



True; God can use anyone, however imperfect, to proclaim his Good News.
But you weren't just talking about bibles that had minor errors in them - you said that the devil was in, and all over, them, and the bibles themselves were unclean and garbage.
These are Bibles with the words "Holy Bible" on the front, btw.



So therefore it cannot be THE only, perfect word of God.



I don't find that to be the case.



I am very interested in the truth.
JESUS is the truth, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of truth and God's word is true. The idea that some Bible, produced only in the 1600s, is the ultimate truth - is not true.

Like I say, I am happy for you to use whichever Bible you please, and don't want to argue you into changing your mind. Just don't imply that you, alone, have/know/follow the truth, and the rest of us don't.

Before I continue to give you a detailed reply, it appears that you have not read (or understood) the entirety of my post #1 because you are acting like you did not see where I pointed out in the Modern Translations in which verses were corrupted by the devil's name.

For example: We see the devil tries to place his name in Modern Translations in Daniel 3.

In Daniel 3, the Babylonian king says there is one like the "Son of God" in the fiery furnace along with Daniel's three friends. This is Jesus! Yet, in the Modern Translations it says the "son of the gods." In many false religions we can see how certain gods had mated with human females and created a hybrid. This is popular even in Greek mythology. So who saved Daniel's friends? Jesus or some hybrid like Hercules?

Nebuchadnezzar thought this was an angel of God (singular and not plural).

"Then Nebuchadnezzar spake, and said, Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, who hath sent his angel, and delivered his servants that trusted in him, and have changed the king's word, and yielded their bodies, that they might not serve nor worship any god, except their own God." (Daniel 3:28).

This was not the "son of the gods (plural) (little "g")!!!
No way Hosea! I mean, "No way José!"
Nebuchadnezzar clearly was referencing the most high God.
The Bible says (even something similar in your Modern Version),

"Then Nebuchadnezzar came near to the mouth of the burning fiery furnace, and spake, and said, Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, ye servants of the most high God, come forth, and come hither. Then Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, came forth of the midst of the fire." (Daniel 3:26).

Angels are called the: "sons of God" in Job.

The fourth person in the fire was still Jesus! The son of God. The Scriptures were still correct in their inspiration by God when they say, "and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God." While Nebuchadnezzar did not know it was the second person of the Godhead or the Trinity, the Lord our God who inspired Scripture surely would have glorified the name of the Son of God (Jesus) in this instance. For it was Jesus who was in the fire with Daniel's three friends!

Also, please check out this thread here, as well. It will help to explain this situation a little better, too.

Jesus is the Messenger of the Lord in the Old Testament.
(Please take note: I do not believe Jesus is an angelic being; I believe Jesus is the second person of the Godhead or the Trinity and that He is fully 100% God who took on the flesh of man).

In Isaiah 14:12, the devil's name "Lucifer" is replaced with "Day Star" or the "Morning Star."
Yes, I am aware that "morning stars" are angels in the book of Job.

But Modern Translations also say this is the Shining Star or the Son of the Dawn. Why?

Jesus says,
"I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star." (Revelation 22:16).

So Jesus is the BRIGHT and MORNING star!

Yet, the individual in Isaiah 14:12 in Modern Translations is called the shining (bright) and morning star or the Day Star, etc.

So the devil is trying to be like the most high here. He is taking a similar sounding title of Jesus in Isaiah 14:12.

For where is the bright and morning star up in the sky?
It is the sun.
That is why He is called the bright and morning star because the sun is bright and rises in the morning.

Also, Lucifer means "light bearer."
Scripture tells us this is what it means.

"And no marvel; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light." (2 Corinthians 11:14).

The word "angel" also means "messenger." So 2 Corinthians 11:14 is saying that Satan is a light messenger or light bearer. In fact, when Satan is described with having all kinds of jewelry on him, it was symbolic of who he was. Certain gemstones refract light. They are not light themselves, but they merely reflect whatever light is in existence. Gemstones are like little light bearers. So how fitting the name "Lucifer" is for the devil. Yet, Modern Translations seek to give the devil a name that is similar to Jesus. This is wrong (of course).
 
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Jason0047 said:
...until you can bring forth biblical evidences to prove your case against the idea that God failed to perfectly preserve His Word in our world language today, you are merely offering an opinion with no substance to prove that what you say is in any way true. In my post #1, I provide biblical evidence to prove my case.
A Realist said:
Nah, you'll just tell me I'm wrong.
Jason0047 said:
That's not how I work
I think most of us would disagree with that statement. Bye.

Wisdom is justified of all her children.

Anyways, may the Lord's love shine upon you.
 
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Before I continue to give you a detailed reply, it appears that you have not read (or understood) the entirety of my post #1 because you are acting like you did not see where I pointed out in the Modern Translations in which verses were corrupted by the devil's name.

No, I didn't read the whole of your post.
As soon as I read the words, "modern translations corrupted by .....", that's where I stop.

The Bible I use, mostly NIV, is the word of God just as much as any other translation - and yes, the KJV is a translation.
It is from God, it is true and inerrant. It describes the same Gospel, same Lord Jesus, same way of salvation, same cross and resurrection, same Holy Spirit and so on as the KJV, or any other Bible. Through reading it I have been saved, born again, filled and blessed.

You don't consider it to be perfect; no translation is, including the KJV. But it's still God's word and saves and teaches the faith.
 
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YeshuaFan

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That's great, but until you can bring forth biblical evidences to prove your case against the idea that God failed to perfectly preserve His Word in our world language today, you are merely offering an opinion with no substance to prove that what you say is in any way true. In my post #1, I provide biblical evidence to prove my case.
Which Kjv version is perfect then? 1611/1769/1842 the so called Baptist revision, 1894? Which TR text,a s Eramus used 6 of them, and used the Latin Vulgate at times, was that version inspired also then?
 
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FenderTL5

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...the idea that God failed to perfectly preserve His Word..
I believe it was the 1769 version of the KJV...
Your belief then would be that God failed to preserve his Word for the first 1700~ years and only recently brought it to light. That's not scriptural. For your belief to be true, then God's Word would have passed away, for a while, then It had to be translated back into existence in 1769.

Yes, I'm aware that you have inserted a qualifier, "...in our world language today"
The qualifier is not Biblical either. There's no promise that scripture will be preserved in our world language today. That's something you have inserted on your own.

I have no qualms with the KJV. I like and use the KJV.
I disagree with your premise.
 
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twin.spin

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As for JW's and Mormonism: I am allowed to say here on the forums that these religions are clearly not of the faith. As for the others, I cannot speak about them fully here on the forums publicly without risk of receiving an infraction.
I'm was just trying to practically have you see that when "the pure Word of God" speaks of "for brethren to dwell together in unity!" that is one of the fundamental reasons for denominations.

That's what this has to do with the KJV. The KJV refutes the premise argument of Non-Denom, when under one roof there are \ can be various tenants of theological pov's by members that have to be ignored in order to satisfy the pure Word.
 
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twin.spin

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Anyways, Jesus said narrow is the way that leads unto life and few be there that finds it. The Bible also warns against false Christs and a false gospel. So we have to make sure we are following the right Jesus and we are following the right gospel.

In other words, the unity of faith is in context to the narrow way of the faith and not the wide gate path that most are on.

But I do not see what this has to do with the KJV. Believing that the KJV is the divinely inspired Word of God is not a salvation issue in most cases. Although, a person's faith can be built up deeper in the Lord with a KJV because faith comes by hearing the Word of God. A person who trusts every word in their Bible is doing so by faith. But if they think their bible has errors in it, then what about their faith? Could their faith be at risk at some point later in their life if they run into a life challenge? For if there faith is in a Bible that has errors in it, could it not lead them to think that their faith is not a sure thing at some point in their life? Personally for me, this would be a deal breaker. In fact, if I knew one word within His Holy word was corrupted, then what makes me trust the rest of it as being true? Who gets to decide which words are true or false?
You're asking too many questions to be reasonably while briefly answered.

I'll try to answer some concerning the KJV and translations in general.

1) Linguistic experts has always wrestled with making older texts relevant to the
current reader of their day. It is well known that translators from the great library of Alexandria admitted in taking some liberties with old works while translating. Fact is the Tower of Babel effects language to language. Such difficulty does not by pass Bible translations and God is well aware of it.

That is why we trust Jesus' promise that his word will never pass away.

2) The KJV was produced using the available knowledge of linguistics and available hard copies that were discovered or in use in 1611.

3) Since 1611 there has been advancements in linguistics and discoveries of other Scrolls and other non-religious texts which help to guide how the language was used \ understood.

4) As for the KJV 1611, according to the Literary Lineage of the Kings James Bible (Philadelphia: University of Pennsylvania Press) the KJV mostly contains wording from some other know English version in existence at the time. 54 scholars were commissioned to work on the King James Version (KJV); 47 are known by name. Some of versions that were used in making of the KJV are:
  • 4% from the Wycliff version
  • 18% from the Tyndale version (which includes Matthew's Bible)
  • 13% from the Coverdale\Great Bible versions
  • 19% from the Geneva Bible (favorite of the 54 scholars that were commissioned by KJ to produce a standard Bible)
  • 4% from the Bishops Bible ( the favorite of King James of England)
  • 3% from all other existing English version
  • approx only 39% of the KJV is original
 
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You're asking too many questions to be reasonably while brevity answered.

I'll try to answer some concerning the KJV and translations in general.

1) Linguistic experts has always wrestled with making older texts relevant to the
current reader of their day. It is well known that translators from the great library of Alexandria admitted in taking some liberties with old works while translating. Fact is the Tower of Babel effects language to language. Such difficulty does not by pass Bible translations and God is well aware of it.

That is why we trust Jesus' promise that his word will never pass away.

2) The KJV was produced using the available knowledge of linguistics and available hard copies that were discovered or in use in 1611.

3) Since 1611 there has been advancements in linguistics and discoveries of other Scrolls and other non-religious texts which help to guide how the language was used \ understood.

4) As for the KJV 1611, according to the Literary Lineage of the Kings James Bible (Philadelphia: University of Pennsylvania Press) the KJV mostly contains wording from some other know English version in existence at the time. 54 scholars were commissioned to work on the King James Version (KJV); 47 are known by name. Some of versions that were used in making of the KJV are:
  • 4% from the Wycliff version
  • 18% from the Tyndale version (which includes Matthew's Bible)
  • 13% from the Coverdale\Great Bible versions
  • 19% from the Geneva Bible (favorite of the 54 scholars that were commissioned by KJ to produce a standard Bible)
  • 4% from the Bishops Bible ( the favorite of King James of England)
  • 3% from all other existing English version
  • approx only 39% of the KJV is original

The King James lines up with the Textus Receptus or the originals.

God can use whatever means He feels is necessary to preserve His Word.

Also, words are translated via from one language to another words can be gained or lost in translation, but they still say the same thing. I have even seen Bible.org make a silly assumption that the King James with words that are the same but they are a different spelling. Surely they are being overly critical beyond logic.

Your argument that God used different bibles does not invalidate the perfect preservation of His Word unless you have a time machine to prove it.

What we can prove is the Observable Evidence. Does God’s Word exist today? If so, can we test it to see if it is divine in origin? I say.... “yes” you can. I can prove that God’s Word (the KJV) is divine in origin. Carefully examine Post #1 and watch the videos. If not, then you are seeing what you want to see.

May God bless you.
 
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Your belief then would be that God failed to preserve his Word for the first 1700~ years and only recently brought it to light. That's not scriptural. For your belief to be true, then God's Word would have passed away, for a while, then It had to be translated back into existence in 1769.

Yes, I'm aware that you have inserted a qualifier, "...in our world language today"
The qualifier is not Biblical either. There's no promise that scripture will be preserved in our world language today. That's something you have inserted on your own.

I have no qualms with the KJV. I like and use the KJV.
I disagree with your premise.

Before the Cambridge KJV Edition (circa 1900), the Bible existed perfectly in the Latin Vulgate (not the Catholic version). Before the Latin, it was the Greek NT and the OT Hebrew.

If you are looking for a general timeline of how God communicated to His people throughout all of time, check out this graphic I made:

full
 
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I'm was just trying to practically have you see that when "the pure Word of God" speaks of "for brethren to dwell together in unity!" that is one of the fundamental reasons for denominations.

That's what this has to do with the KJV. The KJV refutes the premise argument of Non-Denom, when under one roof there are \ can be various tenants of theological pov's by members that have to be ignored in order to satisfy the pure Word.

You are merely stating an opinion and you are not giving any evidence to support your claim. Non-denominational merely means it does not adhere to any denomination perfectly because it is not seeking a denominational label and it is not seeking to be unique by having an invented name. This does not mean that there are not agreed upon things among other denominations like the Trinity, Sola Scriptura, there is one gospel, etc. So there is unity to an extent, but I don’t think Paul had most churches today in mind when he spoke about unity, but he was referring to churches that he knew in light of Christ’s teachings (of which he taught). Today, the churches and the way they do things are very different to how things were back in the day. I believe we are living in the last days. We are living in a time where many seek to follow their own way and not Christ’s way.
 
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kiwimac

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I cannot mind meld with you so as to teach you what I know. I am hindered by words to convince you of the truth. My suggestion is... "Don't believe me until you have checked everything with Scripture (not just by what I wrote but by what other KJV proponents have wrote." My suggestion is to read with an open mind the KJV Only position and check out their reasons. My suggestion is to do a serious continual prayer for a month, and continually ask God if there is a perfect Word of God for our day in the world language of our day. If you were to do that, I know God will reveal to you the truth that I know.

But if you are skeptical and antagonistic and or repulsed by the idea that God preserved His Word for today, then nothing I say here will matter to you and you will seek to throw what things you know at me that has no value. For when a person tastes of the goodness of God's Word, what can any man offer them? Nothing.



If you were to click on the spoiler button in my Point #2, you would see the ungodly changes that Modern Translations make via by way of comparison to the King James. If you truly want to understand my position and or seek after the truth on this matter, then I would suggest getting this book.

full


https://www.amazon.com/New-Age-Bible-Versions-Documentation/dp/0963584502



You either did not look at the verses that showed the devil's name being placed in Modern Translations, or you have come up with a work around so as not to see the obvious truth here. The choice is yours to what you desire to see. I am not saying not to use Modern Translations. I use them all the time to help update the 1600's English. The problem is that they cannot be our final word of authority, though. When we run into a problem passage, we cannot just choose whatever translation we please to fit our fancy. Their has to be a nailed down final word (that is impartial) that goes beyond what we would want or desire (So that we would not attempt to write our own Word of God or our own version of it).



But God tells you to take notice of a number in Revelation 13:18, though. For it is written,

"Here is wisdom. Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is Six hundred threescore and six." (Revelation 13:18).

You have to actually ignore the Bible in it's meanings on numbers. Surely, the Sabbath (the 7th day) signifies completion or an end, right? For the 7th day is the end of the week. So if that is true, then you should be able to see the number seven patterned elsewhere like this in the rest of the Bible. The number 7 appears a bunch of times in the book of Revelation. Why? Because it is the last book of the Bible. It is the end book. This is just the tip of the iceberg.

In fact, biblical numerics is just merely a means to glorify His Word and to show us that it is divine in origin. The numbers are not there to guide our lives, and or to predict the future.



Yes. I agree with all that, too.



Then you need to take a black magic marker and cross out all the numbers in your Bible and tell God that these numbers are all meaningless and useless. However, Jesus said, "Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me." (John 5:39). Even the numbers glorify Jesus Christ and point to Him. That's it. These numbers are not to guide our life if we see them through out the day. It is the Lord Jesus Christ who we go to so as to guide our lives.



There was no standardization of spelling and grammar yet at this time, and the printing process was not perfected yet.



I am sure the term "KJV Only" is the standard understanding as you describe it. But I have taken the meaning of the term "KJV Only" to mean something different. I have taken it to mean that the KJV is my one and ONLY final word of authority on spiritual matters. I compare the KJV next to the Modern Translations. So if the Modern Translation disagrees with my KJV, I only go with the KJV in what it says. I am still KJV Only in the fact that at the end of the day, I side with the KJV in what it says.



This is only because you have limited knowledge on this topic and you have not done the study in comparing the Modern Translations vs. the KJV with an open mind. I am only saying that they are dirt by way of comparison to the KJV because of the corruptions within them. This does not mean a person cannot be saved with those many verses that are correct in a Modern Translation.



My King James Bible does not say on the cover.... "The King James Bible: Just a mere translation." It says, "Holy Bible." The word "Holy" suggests something that is divine. It is not the holey bible which is full of errors and problems that many in the "original languages" camp say.



God can save people using a prosperity preacher on TV. That does not mean that the prosperity preacher is teaching correctly always. He can point a person to Jesus just as most Bibles can. But I can still say that a prosperity preacher is a false teacher. That does not mean God cannot use imperfect people, things, and institutions to spread the gospel of salvation.



Yes, I am not discounting people were saved through out history before the KJV. I am not discounting people can be saved with a Modern Translation, either. Why it is important to have a KJV is because it leads us to a deeper faith and trust in His Word. The KJV is not a salvation issue, although in some cases it can be if a person doubts that God does not have a perfect Word of God for our day (By seeing contradictions amongst the different translations).

In any event, if you still disagree and you have no interest in exploring the truth on whether or not the KJV could be the perfect Word of God for our day, then I think it is best that we agree to disagree in love and respect as fellow believers in Jesus Christ.

May the Lord's love shine upon you today.

With loving kindness to you in Christ,

Sincerely,

~ Jason.

Gail Riplinger would not know the truth if it bit her on the sit-upon. She lies, she makes-up stuff wholesale and she cuts and pastes to make the points she wants to make and all to fool those already foolish people who accept KJV-Onlyism.
 
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swordsman1

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For example: We see the devil tries to place his name in Modern Translations in Daniel 3.

In Daniel 3, the Babylonian king says there is one like the "Son of God" in the fiery furnace along with Daniel's three friends. This is Jesus! Yet, in the Modern Translations it says the "son of the gods." In many false religions we can see how certain gods had mated with human females and created a hybrid. This is popular even in Greek mythology. So who saved Daniel's friends? Jesus or some hybrid like Hercules?

Nebuchadnezzar thought this was an angel of God (singular and not plural).

"Then Nebuchadnezzar spake, and said, Blessed be the God of Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, who hath sent his angel, and delivered his servants that trusted in him, and have changed the king's word, and yielded their bodies, that they might not serve nor worship any god, except their own God." (Daniel 3:28).

This was not the "son of the gods (plural) (little "g")!!!
No way Hosea! I mean, "No way José!"
Nebuchadnezzar clearly was referencing the most high God.
The Bible says (even something similar in your Modern Version),

"Then Nebuchadnezzar came near to the mouth of the burning fiery furnace, and spake, and said, Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, ye servants of the most high God, come forth, and come hither. Then Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, came forth of the midst of the fire." (Daniel 3:26).

Angels are called the: "sons of God" in Job.

The fourth person in the fire was still Jesus! The son of God. The Scriptures were still correct in their inspiration by God when they say, "and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God." While Nebuchadnezzar did not know it was the second person of the Godhead or the Trinity, the Lord our God who inspired Scripture surely would have glorified the name of the Son of God (Jesus) in this instance. For it was Jesus who was in the fire with Daniel's three friends!

Hi Jason,

It seems the KJV has translated the word wrongly. The word in the original Hebrew is אֱלָהִֽין (plural) - 'gods'. The 4th person in the furnace may indeed have been Jesus, but scripture is quoting the words Nebuchadnezzar actually said. Nebuchadnezzar was a pagan and he described what he believed he saw (a son of the pagan gods). The KJV translators were wrong to translate the word as 'God' (singular). In the other instances of אֱלָהִֽין (plural) the KJV has correctly translated it as 'gods' (Dan 2:11, Dan 2:47, Dan 4:8, Dan 4:9, Dan 4:18, Dan 5:11, Dan 5:14) so why did they translate the word wrongly here? Could it be their theological bias?
 
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