As usual, a synergist leaves of v. 13
Where do you see God's hardening influence in their failure to repent? In other words, does God, by His Providence, have any influence on their sinful lifestyle?
That's a good one!
No trying to gain a greater understanding or your understanding of how this 'block logic' applies to the text.
I may have missed your post where you exhaustively explained it in the history of Israel.
Taking that to its logical conclusion would infer God was a narcissist for actually creating all the seen and unseen. But we don't call artists, sculptors and composers narcissists but 'masters' and "maestro."
I believe Jesus explained it a few verses later. That the apostles did not choose Jesus but He chose them, and appointed them that they would go and bear fruit, and that their fruit would remain.
Your view is God saw us accept Him in the future and then He predestined us? Would that not make us the unmoved mover and God the moved?--Sorry for injecting Thomas Aquinas here..
In the Exodus would be my response. Pharaoh initially hardened his heart, then God later hardened his heart. Here is the breakdown, Pharaoh hardened his heart (Exodus 8:15; 8:32), Pharaoh’s heart was hardened (Exodus 9:7; 9:34). God tells Moses I have hardened Pharaoh’s heart (Exodus 10:1; 14:17). (H3513 כָּבַד kabad).
All we really know about the 'book of life', is that God wrote it and if your name in not in it, your off to the fires of perdition. Maybe God wrote it before the foundation of the earth, or maybe every time a soul comes into the world they are added, and when they go on to become children of perdition their name is blotted out. We really don't know, we do know this, God knows the end from the beginning and the one who makes the promise is faithful.
So how does this factor into that?:
Of course I agree, you receive the revelation from God, you are born again by the Spirit of God, saved, justified, sanctified and equipped for service by the power of God for his glory, no question. I was wondering what you thought of the expression, 'as many as received him', is all.
Of course it does, and I do not contend it is anything other then a secondary choice. But the sinner does choose to receive him right, I mean it is linked to having the right to be children of God. Does it not?
