Restating your assertion of symbolism while you have sitting objections is a problem. It is a historical fact that there was 2nd temple expectation that the Messiah would come on a Donkey. It is a historical fact that Hashem was seen as the cloud rider Duet 33:26, Psalm 68:33, Psalm 104:3,
Isaiah 19:1. So you need to explain why you take a different interpretation when your ancestors, who actually had a temple, took it literally. You need to overcome those objections, not merely restate your assertions.
You still haven't given any evidence that 2nd Temple Pharisees believed that the Messiah would come on a donkey before actually doing anything, such as being triumphant and victorious as verse 9 says. And you're ignoring the fact that what we find here in Zechariah 9:9 continues on into verse 10 which says: "And I will cut off the
chariot from Ephraim, And the horse from Jerusalem, And the battle bow shall be cut off, And he shall speak peace unto the nations; And his dominion shall be from sea to sea, And from the River to the ends of the earth." Ignoring the fact for right now that Jesus never ruled from sea to sea and to the ends of the earth, we have statements right here which explain the imagery of the King Messiah riding on a donkey which is that a donkey, which is an animal not used for war, represents the Messiah bringing peace in the world and as we read in verse 10 that HaShem will destroy the chariot of Ephraim and the horse from Jerusalem and the battle bow shall be cut off because all three of these things represent the various instruments used in war. But when the Messiah comes and defeats all of the enemies of G-d, there will be no need for these things since Israel will never have to go to war again.
It is a historical fact that Hashem was seen as the cloud rider Duet 33:26, Psalm 68:33, Psalm 104:3,
Isaiah 19:1.
And all 4 other verses that use the cloud rider terminology refer to Hashem. So how is the Messiah to come on the clouds supposed to be a simple man.
No one thought that HaShem was
the cloud rider like its only imagery that can be used for HaShem and speaking of which no one believed that HaShem was literally surfing on the clouds. You reference Deuteronomy 33:26 but it literally says: "There is none like unto God, O Jeshurun, Who
rides upon the heaven as thy help, And in His excellency on the skies." So this is an ongoing process but last time I checked I've never see HaShem as a man surfing on the clouds in the sky.
Let me just be clear. If you want to make the claim that Duet 29 is like
Zechariah 3:2 you need to show the same format as
Zechariah 3:2 where the writer says "Hashem said" and it was Moses who said it. Right now you have Moses said, and he is carrying Hashems words. Until you do that you have no literary comparison.
Michael isn't called Hashem, he is called Michael. Michael says "Hashem rebuke you". And Michael is not in
Zechariah 3:2. If you want to claim that scripture x is like
Zechariah 3:2 you need to show the same format where the text says "Hashem said". Not Moses said, those are apples and oranges. If you want to show this as a custom it needs to include the same colloquial identifiers, not different ones.
So then what was your whole point about the assumption of Moses mentioning Michael as the one who is speaking here? We know that it is an angel speaking here since we are specifically told in Zechariah 3:1 that Joshua was standing before an angel of the LORD and Satan was acting as a prosecutor to accuse him. But the angel standing as God's representative speaks as God as already explained. What you're trying to do is create a false dichotomy as if a slightly different format completely changes the dictum of Hebrew agency.
I don't need to provide 2nd temple counter examples to the examples I am presenting. YOU DO. And even if you do, it does not change the fact that there was real historic literal expectation to the coming of the Messiah. Your welcome to search for some, but if you present them you will have to drop the case that they are unambiguous won't you? So you have a choice in the poison you are drinking.
There is in fact a real historic literal expectation to the coming of the Messiah in contrast to the Christian concept of the conveniently invisible kingdom that Jesus is now artificially ruling. You're the one who must provide historical evidence that the Jews in Jesus' time expected the Messiah to come and die as a "vicarious atonement" and then return later to actually fulfill the main Messianic prophecies. Just imagine if I took someone like Bar Kokhba who came way closer to fulfilling the Messianic prophecies than Jesus did and say that he was sinless and that he was wrongly killed by the Romans and that he was ressurected and that he would return as the Messiah. Would you believe me? Of course not.
The 2nd Temple lasted for over 500 years. It ended a few decades after Jesus's death with many signs and omens of God's displeasure which is apparent to this day by the lack of a temple. Not only is the Temple missing, the Temple mount is dedicated to a pagan god
It could easily be stated that the reason God destroyed the Temple was because many Jews (many according to the NT) believed in Jesus. So believing that God sacrificed a man to atone for everyone's sins even though human sacrifice and men dieing on behalf of other people's sins are blasphemous ideas and is a good way to bring God's righteous wrath on the nation.
Matthew 16:21-22 doesn't show that no one believed in a second coming of the Messiah, it just shows they expected the Messiah to conquer Israels enemies.
The text explicitly shows that the reason Peter pulled Jesus aside and ridiculed him is because he just told his disciples that he would die.
We can see with John the baptist that there were those that believed in 2 comings because John asks Jesus from Prison “Are you the one who is to come, or shall we look for another?”. That is future tense.
He is speaking from the point of view of someone who doesn't know if the Messiah has come yet.
The Talmuds don't even agree on each other.
But you're ignoring the fact that the Babylonian Talmud and Jerusalem Talmud are simply records of discussions on all aspects of Jewish life. It is only the legal part of the Talmud (the Mishnah) which is binding.
Afflicted and Pierced are quite different.
No, not really. Being pierced is a form of affliction.
The point in me telling you that "God" means Elohim is to further explain that the Godhead is not a person but is the divine substance that the 3 persons share.
So what you're trying to say is because the Hebrew word "elohim" is plural that it means that G-d is more than one Person. Of course if you read any authoritative Christian lexicon, they will unanimously tell you that "elohim", when used of a singular individual, is a plural intensive since in a Hebrew plural doesn't necessarily mean a plural in number but a plural in power or greatness. For instance, we read in Job 40:15-16: "Behold now behemoth, which I made with thee; He eateth grass as an ox. Lo now, his strength is in his loins, And his force is in the stays of his body." The word "behemoth" is actually plural but when applied to a singular, individual animal it signifies the chiefest and largest of beasts. Similarly, "elohim" when applied to a singular individual signifies the cheifest power or a great power. The word elohim is also used of singular, pagan gods such as dagon in 1 Samuel 5:7. It's meaning in regards to the one true elohim is that all the powers are embodied in Him and therefore He controls all the forces of creation.
The whole world prays to Hashem, not every person, but people of every nation and tongue and you had no part in that. While that was happening Hashem left your temple. It is the second coming that will be unmistakable, not the first. Paul says of this "I do not want you to be unaware of this mystery, brothers: a partial hardening has come upon Israel, until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in." When that is done you will look upon whom you have pierced.
So then you admit that there is no for sure evidence that Jesus is the Messiah according to his first coming. Thank you for admitting it. It would therefore be ridiculous for you to say that Jews are going to be in an eternal barbeque because your "messiah" accomplished nothing cutting off any chance of informed Jews believing in him.
I would also like to hear your reply about the cloud rider in
Daniel 7 being a man given that the text says "like" a man,
First off, as already mentioned, the text in Daniel simply says that the Messiah is coming
with the clouds. Second, Daniel says he saw someone "like" a son of man because from what Daniel could tell, the person he was seeing looked like a man.
and the prophecy that complements it at the end of Psalm 82 calls the person an Elohim.
Psalm 82 is not a prophecy. The only men (plural) who are called elohim in this Psalm are God's appointed judges and magistrates in verse 6.
How do I know the Messiah in Daniel 7:13-14 is simply a man? Because we are specifically told in verse 14 that he is
given dominion. HaShem cannot be
given dominion by anyone and to suggest so is blasphemy. And we are also told in Micah 5 that HaShem is the God of the Messiah. Do really expect me to believe that HaShem has a God?