Dr. D Bunker
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- Jan 3, 2019
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What about Luke 19 and Revelation 18?Read the passage carefully, the day of visitation applies to Assyria, not Israel.
You quoted what God said, and then pretended that it meant something that it very clearly did not mean.I quoted verbatim what God said.
Isn't that what He meant?
You quoted what God said, and then pretended that it meant something that it very clearly did not mean.
You know what those passages are, I'm not going to spoon feed them to you. I'm sure you've been around long enough to know the PERSON we call anti-Christ is called several different names, you do know that, right?
You didn't look at the link to the Textus Receptus. Otherwise you would have put more effort in debunking my reply. The KJV was translated from it. Neither did you pay attention to the fact that one word for ANTICHRIST is SINGULAR,(the man) the other is plural!(the spirit). Why is that?
Why would you interpret that verse to mean something it absolutely does not say?
Don't play games. Take the time to look at the links I provide. That was quoted from the 15th century interlinear.
Good post and it is always nice to go to the greek.Man made tradition is the ONLY authority you can appeal to for this belief.
There is not one single scripture that teaches "antichrist" is properly, biblically referred to by ANY other name.
Such is PURELY extra-biblical and man-made... otherwise, you would be able to cite chapter and verse of the teaching. But you can not. Because it does not exist in scripture. It is PURELY a later invention of men, yet for some reason, you hold that as authoritative for you over and above scripture.
I'll Stick to scripture.
Here is what the verse says:
"Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the last hour."
Again, why would you interpret that verse to mean something it PLAINLY does not say?
When faced with these two polar opposite interpretations, that of the Infallibly inspired 1st-century apostle John, and that of random, fallible 21st-century internet commentator Dr D Buker, My money is on the Apostle, every time.
1 John 2:18 says THE ANTI-CHRIST. 2 Thes. 2 says, THE LAWLESS ONE, THE MAN OF SIN, THE SON OF PERDITION.
1 John 2:18 shows us there's a difference between The Anti-Christ and an anti-Christ. I know you're your Preterist blinders prevent you from seeing this. But by paying just a little attention you may see it....but I doubt you will.
Notice the word that describes THE Antichrist is preceded by the word THE and is Capitalized, and is SINGULAR! NOTICE THAT THE SECOND WORD ANTICHRISTS IS not capitalized and is plural, and the word MANY is used instead of THE.
NKJV
Little children, it is the last hour; and as you have heard that the Antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come, by which we know that it is the last hour.
There is also the AoD concerning the article "the".In the beginning I said you wouldn't accept it, and you've proven that. It doesn't take but a novice bible student to decipher the different between the Anti-Christ and many antichrists. It doesn't take a grammatical genius to know that personal pronouns and proper, common, and collective nouns are used to describe one who is prophesied to emerge in the latter days. That a man is coming in the end is clear. 1 John calls him the Anti-Christ because he is the "false anointed one."
That terminology is used in the 15th century interlinear. That's another resource you refuse to pay attention to. Why would you, those resources only debunk your Preterist views!
........................Reve 16:21 And great Hail as talent-weight is descending out of the Heaven/Sky upon the Men, and they blaspheme the God out of the blow of the Hail, that great is the blow of it, tremendous.
Yes it is. ONCE. The KJV omitted the word THE and several other translations haven't. THE is in the Textus Receptus.
KJV 1 John 2:18 Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that antichrist shall come, even now are there many antichrists; whereby we know that it is the last time.
The word 'anti-Christ' in the KJV doesn't always indicate a plurality of persons. 1st and 2nd John shows that anti-Christ IS the denial of Christ and a damnable heresy. The 'anti-Christ' has several names. The man of sin, and the lawless one, the wicked counsellor, the son of perdition, a vile person, etc. He IS one individual since there are several times personal pronouns are used to describe him. Anti-Christ isn't always just a 'spirit.'
In 1 John 2:18 the word THE is in the interlinear. Over a dozen bible translations use the word 'the' in the translation of 1 John 2:18. The NIV is just one that does...
"Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the last hour."
I would interpret it like this, "Many antichrist have come, and THE antichrist is coming, that's how you will know it's the last hour."
1 John 2:18 has one word for antichrist that is singular, the other plural, and wasn't translated correctly in the KJV. You can confirm that at the link below.
"Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that (THE) antichrist (singular) shall come, even now are there many antichrists; (plural) whereby we know that it is the last time."
The verse actually reads in the Greek interlinear like this...
Little boys and girls, it is the last hour and according as ye hear that THE "instead-anointed" (antichrist) is coming and now many instead anointeds have become.....
www.scripture4all.org/OnlineI...NTpdf/1jo2.pdf
Old Testament Prophets had no option but to use the wording and knowledge of their time to describe people and events thousands of years in the future. So we have to look for hidden clues to determine the timeframe of the message.
The idea of an Assyrian anti-Christ doesn't mean the man emerges from ancient Assyria, it means he will come from that geographical area, either born there or rule from there, e.g. likely Iraq.
I agree that Jerusalem wasn't taken in verse 11.
In Isaiah 10:1 it says, "Woe unto them that decree unrighteous decrees, and that write grievousness which they have prescribed."
This WOE is directed towards "Assyria," NOT toward Israel.
Chapter 14 is full of events that can only happen during the Millennial kingdom. Chapter 10, not so much. The Lord has NOT "performed his whole work upon mount Zion and on Jerusalem." It goes on until "the day of visitation," the Day of the Lord. Verse 12 clearly states the Lord punishes the KING of Assyria.
NOT the Assyrian people like you claim.
That doesn't matter because it's the KING of Assyria is who the Lord punishes, NOT the Assyrians, and that according to you're thinking and 2 Kings19:35-36, would be Sennacherib.
The Assyrian is destroyed in Israel!
Isaiah 14:25 That I will break the Assyrian in my land, and upon my mountains tread him under foot: then shall his yoke depart from off them, and his burden depart from off their shoulders. This is the purpose that is purposed upon the whole earth: and this is the hand that is stretched out upon all the nations.
Isaiah 10:27 And it shall come to pass in that day, that his burden shall be taken away from off thy shoulder, and his yoke from off thy neck, and the yoke shall be destroyed because of the anointing.
Concerning the ww2 holocaust, Israel's PM just became a Preterist! AMEN!In 70 A.D. There was ONE army that surrounded Jerusalem, the Roman army. Not several armies like those mentioned in Ezekiel 38-39 and Psalm 83.
And how the events of 70 AD were worse than the holocaust.
In 70 A.D. There was ONE army that surrounded Jerusalem, the Roman army. Not several armies like those mentioned in Ezekiel 38-39 and Psalm 83.
Not ONCE in Mathew 24 does Jesus suggest he is deviating from answering the disciples question" WHEN shall these things be, what shall be the sing of thy coming, and of the end of the world? Jesus is talking about "the end" of an 'aion' which we are still within. This is generation no other than the one that sees and endures what Jesus said between verses 3-33.
Can any preterist tell me who between 65-70 A.D. were the false Christ that deceive many,
What the rumours of wars and wars were between 65-70 A.D.,
What nations rose against nations, what kingdoms rose against kingdoms.
What famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, took place in divers places.
The Nazarene Sect Of Judaism.Who it was that was saved by enduring to the end.
What or who the abomination was.
And how the events of 70 AD were worse than the holocaust.
For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be.
There is no expiration date on the everlasting Gospel, Because it is EVERLASTING.And why the gospel of the kingdom is still being preached in all the world when the word for world is "the inhabited earth"
And how the sun and moon were darkened and how “the stars will fall from the sky.”