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When we apply comprehension 101 to what Paul said, we get the following:No. Not everyone in the early church was able to speak in tongues.
This fact is obvious by the following Scripture.
4 "Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit.
5 And there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord.
6 And there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all.
7 But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to every man to profit withal.
8 For to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit;
9 To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit;
10 To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues:
11 But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will."
(1 Corinthians 12:4-11).
"Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret? " (1 Corinthians 12:30).
Do all speak with tongues?
Obviously... "no."
"I would that you all spoke in tongues"
This means that his desire is that all the members of the Corinthian church, and every other church (if we read 1 Corinthians 1 to see who the letter was addressed to besides the Corinthians) spoke in tongues.
When we look at this sentence inferentially, we see that if he desired that they all spoke in tongues, then it implies that they would have been able to speak in tongues, because why would he express the desire that they all spoke in tongues if he thought they would not have been able to?
When he said,"Do all speak in tongues?" he is clearly inferring that not everyone speaks in tongues. The answer cannot be "yes" because that would not be consistent with the inference. When a person asks that type of question, he is inferring that not all speak in tongues, rather than, yes, all do speak in tongues.
But it is wrong to say from Paul's question that not all are able to speak in tongues, otherwise he would have asked, "Are all able to speak in tongues?" inferring that not all are able to exercise the gift. But Paul did not ask his question that way.
What is inferred is that some speak in tongues and others decide not to for a number of reasons. If someone says that the reason why some don't speak in tongues because they are unable to, they are being inconsistent with Paul's sentence, "I would that you all speak in tongues." It would make Paul out to be unfair, to encourage people to speak in tongues when in fact they were not able to.
I think a lot of folk are spooked out of receiving the gift through the evil and perverse teaching of cessationists who deceitfully misuse God's Word, quoting Scripture out of context. Unless they repent of their lies and deceit, it will absolutely SUCK to be them in the Judgment!
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