1 John 1:8-10 is crystal clear.
*Notice in verse 30 -
sealed for the day of redemption. Does that sound like un-sealed prior to the day of redemption to you?
What about Ephesians 1:13-14? -
sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise, who is the
guarantee of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, to the praise of His glory.
To "draw back to perdition" does not equate to
sanctified once for all/perfected forever/for all time. It certainly is a warning for those who "draw back to perdition" and
do not believe to the saving of the soul. Living a life of fear and bondage to IN-security is no way to live the Christian life. (2 Timothy 1:7)
Your argument sounds like sinless perfection bias. Once again:
Doeth no sin hamartian (NT:263) ou (NT:3708) poiei (NT:4109). Linear present active indicative as in 1 John 3:4 like hamartanei (NT:261) in 1 John 3:8.
The child of God does not have the habit of sin.” (from Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament)
1 John 3:9 And he cannot sin kai (NT:2498) ou (NT:3708) dunatai (NT:1394) hamartanein (NT:261).
This is a wrong translation, for this English naturally means "and he cannot commit sin" as if it were kai (NT:2498) ou (NT:3708) dunatai (NT:1394) hamartein (NT:261) or hamarteesai (NT:261) (second aorist or first aorist active infinitive).
The present active infinitive hamartanein (NT:261)
can only mean "and he cannot go on sinning," as is true of hamartanei (NT:261) in 1 John 3:8 and hamartanoon (NT:261) in 1 John 3:6. For the aorist subjunctive to commit a sin see hamarteete (NT:261) and hamartee (NT:261) in 1 John 2:1.
A great deal of false theology has grown out of a misunderstanding of the tense of hamartanein (NT:261) here. Paul has precisely John's idea in Romans 6:1 epimenoomen (NT:1936) tee (NT:3543) hamartia (NT:263)
(shall we continue in sin, present active linear subjunctive) in contrast with hamarteesoomen (NT:261) in Romans 6:15 (shall we commit a sin, first aorist active subjunctive). from Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament)
If 1 John 3:9 means that those who are born of God NEVER sin at all (sinless perfection) then we have a contradiction with 1 John 2:1, which reads - My little children, these things I write to you, so that you
may not sin. (So nobody is forced to sin 24/7--the devil made me do it etc..) And
if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. (Wait a minute,
IF anyone sins? How could that be possible if 1 John 3:9 means those who are born of God never sin at all?)
Contradiction!