- Feb 22, 2017
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Not sure if they're all questions, but I'm uncertain about few things and how I interpreted and understood.
Was Moses killing of the Egyptian who was beating a Hebrew just defense of another or unjust murder? In Exodus 2:11-12 it says Moses looked around and didn't see anyone, then he struck the Egyptian hiding his body. Next it says in Exodus 2:13-14 that it was two Hebrews, one was striking the other; Moses seems hypocritical as he didn't kill the offender. Even he asked if Moses intended to kill him too, also who had made him a prince or a judge over them. How I came to understand it is Moses was yet to be with God, but would get his authority from Him to be a voice for all peoples; freeing them from the bondage of slavery and sin alike.
According to God in Exodus 3:20 when the Pharaoh doesn't let the Hebrews go, He'll compel him with all his miracles (NIV wonders); does this mean God's miracles or wonders include curses along with blesses? Next verse mentions favoring the Hebrews before the Egyptians, including asking for material things and giving them to the children. Is the Lord making a distinction of people's ; those of Him who're humble, obedient, and generous versus those not of him who're arrogant, disobedient, and greedy (liberty/righteous vs. bondage/sin)?
Lastly in Exodus 4:24-26 it's about circumcision, it's a strange start to something else and only makes sense to me if it's a continuation relating to the previous verse about killing the firstborn when the Pharaoh doesn't let His son go to serve Him. Also considering what Zipporah says about Moses being a bridegroom of blood to her, my understanding is God was going to kill their firstborn child not having the sign of the covenant and it was the giving of her son's flesh and blood that justified her and him as wife and son to Moses being of God.
Any flaws with my thinking or scriptures elsewhere that say otherwise related to the above? Or anything you would add?
Was Moses killing of the Egyptian who was beating a Hebrew just defense of another or unjust murder? In Exodus 2:11-12 it says Moses looked around and didn't see anyone, then he struck the Egyptian hiding his body. Next it says in Exodus 2:13-14 that it was two Hebrews, one was striking the other; Moses seems hypocritical as he didn't kill the offender. Even he asked if Moses intended to kill him too, also who had made him a prince or a judge over them. How I came to understand it is Moses was yet to be with God, but would get his authority from Him to be a voice for all peoples; freeing them from the bondage of slavery and sin alike.
According to God in Exodus 3:20 when the Pharaoh doesn't let the Hebrews go, He'll compel him with all his miracles (NIV wonders); does this mean God's miracles or wonders include curses along with blesses? Next verse mentions favoring the Hebrews before the Egyptians, including asking for material things and giving them to the children. Is the Lord making a distinction of people's ; those of Him who're humble, obedient, and generous versus those not of him who're arrogant, disobedient, and greedy (liberty/righteous vs. bondage/sin)?
Lastly in Exodus 4:24-26 it's about circumcision, it's a strange start to something else and only makes sense to me if it's a continuation relating to the previous verse about killing the firstborn when the Pharaoh doesn't let His son go to serve Him. Also considering what Zipporah says about Moses being a bridegroom of blood to her, my understanding is God was going to kill their firstborn child not having the sign of the covenant and it was the giving of her son's flesh and blood that justified her and him as wife and son to Moses being of God.
Any flaws with my thinking or scriptures elsewhere that say otherwise related to the above? Or anything you would add?