The Septuagint text lines up better when referencing the Apostles in the NT than the Masoretic text because that's the text that was available to then at that time.
They are probably not out of context. I quote Jeremiah too because there are a lot of great verses there, like this, Thus saith the Lord; Cursed be the man that trusteth in man, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the Lord. Jeremiah 17:5 or Jeremiah 17:7-8 Jeremiah also speaks about, the fountain of living water. A lot of great scripture in Jeremiah and the Psalms about how, the Word, operates. Jesus too quoted Old Testament verses, of course it was the Septuagint, Torah or other sacred writings. Jesus came to clarify the scriptures and show us that indeed God's Word is living, he was the embodiment of the Word, filled with power. It quickens me just talking about it, so exciting!
Because that is how prophecy is supposed to be read. I have no doubt Paul knew what he was doing(being filled with the holy spirit).
Specifically in Chapter 1:5-13, 2:5-8;12-14, 7:17-22, and finally 10:5-7. I went and read these (the majority of them in the Psalms) and most of them seem pretty clear to me they are either David praising God for His grace, that he (David), a mere shephard, was chosen by God and how wonderful God is because of His grace. The others are sung by the Sons of Korah and sound like hymns of praise to me. I don't mean to post this to be assertive, I have just been under attack by the enemy lately and this is one the things that's been troubling my spirit.
Chapter 1:5-13, 2:5-8;12-14, 7:17-22, and finally 10:5-7. I'm confused about the context in which Paul is using them related to their original context in the Psalms and Deuteronomy. I want to learn why hes using these in the context he writes to better understand this Epistle.
Certainly! I didn't mean to sound assertive, rather just looking for answers to my question. Chapter 1:5-13, 2:5-8;12-14, 7:17-22, and finally 10:5-7 are ones that I sort of struggle with trying to see them in their original context in the OT versus the way Paul uses them in context in the NT. I guess I don't really have an arguement, just more of a question on why is Paul using these scriptures in the context he is, and if he meant to say, "These scriptures were LITERALLY talking about [to] Christ" or whether he is saying "these were the things foreshadowed in the OT, and we can apply these quotes from the Word to the Word become flesh." if that makes sense?
Not taken the wrong way at all, I definately agree with you, but sometimes the enemy can get inside your head and make you ask too many questions instead of just trusting.
Yes, thank you, I know this. But I also do know that they think Paul most likely wrote this book.
Chapter 1:5-13, 2:5-8;12-14, 7:17-22, and finally 10:5-7. Thank you! God bless you as well.
