Salvation is through faith alone.

justbyfaith

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Yet, Zacchaeus was told that salvation had come to his house and he just was willing to give up half of his goods (See Luke 19:1-10).

Also, Scripture records men like Jason, and others who still had their homes or houses. In Acts 2, they were not told to give up their homes and forsake them. Instead some of them broke bread house to house.
Now you are making excuses. Just strike Luke 14:33 out of your Bible if you are not going to obey it.

I say to you verily that Jesus requires you to obey it because you are not coming to Him on the basis of His grace (unmerited favour towards you) but on the basis of works. Therefore He requires you to obey every command of scripture perfectly from the point of your conception into all of your eternity if you are going to be accepted on the basis of what you do (Galatians 3:10, James 2:10, Matthew 5:48, Matthew 5:18).
 
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justbyfaith

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and going back to the whole of the Law of Moses that is no more.

The law of Moses is no more? I think that Jesus would disagree with you (Matthew 5:17-20)

We are not justified by the works of the Law of Moses (as a whole - contractually speaking).

What is that exemption that you have made to us not being justified by the law of Moses--(as a whole, contractually speaking)? What do you mean by that? Are we justified by the law of Moses in part, and not according to contract, in your opinion?

For when a "Belief Alone" proponent reads things in their Bible like when Jesus said, "If you will enter into life, keep the commandments" in Matthew 19:17, they have to either ignore this verse or they have to find a way to explain it away.

Faith alone is perfectly compatible with Matthew 19:17 when you see it in light of 2 Corinthians 5:17.

Do you believe that you Christians always sin every week?

Are you saying that you yourself are not a Christian?
 
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The law of Moses is no more? I think that Jesus would disagree with you (Matthew 5:17-20)

Well, I am going to reply to your recent posts once (broken down into bite size pieces, i.e. mini posts, and not as an endless back and forth discussion). I will reply not as a means to convince you, but out of love for the brethren who may read this later on.

Okay, to get down to business:

When Jesus said He came not to destroy the Law and the prophets but to fulfill them, He was talking about the whole of the Old Testament Scriptures (i.e. the Law and the Prophets - see: Matthew 5:17). Certain OT prophecies concerning the second coming of Christ still need to be fulfilled and Jesus will one day fulfill them. Once Jesus fulfills them, there will be no need for us to look to those OT prophecies anymore in regards to His coming because He already came.

The same is true of the Law. When Jesus said He came not to destroy the Law, but to fulfill it, He was saying that He came not to destroy God's Laws (altogether) but He came to bring it into fruition or fulfillment into the Laws or Commands He would give us under the New Covenant (or New Testament). For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ (John 1:17). Hebrews 7:12 says the Law has changed. Jesus was giving us a more perfect way with His commands.

There is a Change of Some Laws:

The Law of Moses says:
"When you shall vow a vow unto the LORD your God,..." (Deuteronomy 23:21).

But Jesus now says:
"But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne" (Matthew 5:44).​

In other words, you are not to make any new religious vows under the New Covenant; While this was permissible to do in the Old Covenant. Here is another example:

The Law of Moses says:
"Breach for breach, eye for eye, tooth for tooth: as he hath caused a blemish in a man, so shall it be done to him again." (Leviticus 24:20).

But Jesus now says:
"But I say unto you, that you resist not evil: For whosoever shall strike you on your right cheek, turn to him the other also."(Matthew 5:39).​

In other words, we are to no longer render an eye for an eye anymore like in the Old Covenant, but we are to resist not evil and turn the other cheek (for them to hit) if we are smitten on the one cheek.

This was all a part of fulfilling the Law. Jesus was fulfilling the Law into it's true intended purpose by making it better by us loving God and loving our neighbor. Yes, the OT mentions how we are to love God and love our neighbor, but it did not exactly fulfill that to it's fullest capacity. For is it more loving to kill the other person if they hit you, or is it more loving and merciful to allow them to live so you can later tell them about the gospel? Jesus was bringing the Law into perfection (i.e. fulfillment into it's true intended end goal).
 
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The law of Moses is no more? I think that Jesus would disagree with you (Matthew 5:17-20)

An Apple Seed and A Tree:

Think of it like this: the apple seed (the Law of Moses) was not destroyed by a person taking a hammer and smashing it, but it was fulfilled into it's true intended purpose of it coming to fruition by being planted in the ground and becoming an apple tree (i.e. the New Covenant Commands of Jesus Christ - which would include the command of believing on Him - 1 John 3:23).​

Some Laws Became A Little More Challenging (or Better for us to be Perfect in our Walk with GOD):

We see that the Old Law alone was inferior. It was not as perfect. Jesus mentioned adultery in the Old Law (Which is still in effect today under the New Covenant - See Romans 13:8-10), but Jesus pointed out that it is even more than what the OT says. He says that to even look upon a woman in lust is to commit adultery in your heart (Whereby a person can be in danger of having their whole body cast into hell fire).​

This is the fulfilling of the Law. Jesus was making the Old Law come into it's fruition or true intended purpose with a better set of commands (that He would give to believers in the New Covenant).
 
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Now you are making excuses. Just strike Luke 14:33 out of your Bible if you are not going to obey it.

By hovering our cursor over this passage you present, we can see in the ESV (this website's Bible translation of choice) has the word "renounce," (Which I believe is inaccurate).

The KJV says:
"So likewise, whosoever he be of you that forsaketh not all that he hath, he cannot be my disciple." (Luke 14:33 KJV).

Did all believers who had salvation forsake all things in the sense of never coming back to them to be saved? Is that what forsake means?

Does it mean to sell your house, or abandon it for good, or to simply leave that house behind temporarily? Should we ignore in providing for our family as a result of this? Should we ignore the paying to Caesar on the taxes of our house (if we cannot sell it)?

We learn in the story of Zacchaeus in Luke 19:1-10 that when Zacchaeus was willing to give away half of his goods, Jesus said salvation had come to his house. He did not forsake all, and yet Jesus said salvation had to come to his house (implying he was saved). We also see in other instances in Scripture of believers owning homes, too. There is the house of Jason (Acts of the Apostles 17:5). We see that at Pentecost, the believers broke bread (i.e. the Lord's supper) from house to house (Acts of the Apostles 2:46).
 
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I say to you verily that Jesus requires you to obey it because you are not coming to Him on the basis of His grace (unmerited favour towards you) but on the basis of works.

Again, you have to pluck those verses you read by Paul that says we are not saved by the Law or by works out of their context to make it say it refer to the refer to the commands of Jesus. Paul was not referring to works of faith, or the commands of Jesus. Paul was referring to the Law of Moses, or the works of the Law of Moses. Paul was trying to refute "Circumcision Salvationism." (See Romans 3:1, Galatians 5:2, Galatians 6:15, Acts of the Apostles 15:1, Acts of the Apostles 15:5, and Acts of the Apostles 15:24). For if Paul was speaking against the commands of Jesus Christ, he would have contradicted himself when he said that if any man does not consent (does not agree) to the words of Jesus Christ and the doctrine according to godliness, he is proud and he knows nothing (See 1 Timothy 6:3-4). James 4:6 says God resists the proud and gives grace to the humble.
 
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Therefore He requires you to obey every command of scripture perfectly from the point of your conception into all of your eternity if you are going to be accepted on the basis of what you do (Galatians 3:10, James 2:10, Matthew 5:48, Matthew 5:18).

Galatians 3:10 is talking about the Law of Moses and not all law. Look at the context. Think of the Old Law being done away with like it was an old contract being done away with. For example: If a person decides to buy a house and he does not like the contract the sellers give him, he could ask for a new contract to be made. If they make a new contract, the old one would no longer apply (even though some things from the Old contract might be the same in the new contract). We are under a New Contract (New Covenant) with New Commands.

James 2:10 is talking about stumbling in one point in regards to the Royal Law, i.e. the Law of loving your neighbor. James does not mention the command to be baptized, or the Lord telling us to keep the Lord's supper in remembrance of Him here. No ceremonial laws were in view in this chapter. Paul is talking about stumbling in one point in regards to Law of Loving your neighbor. Look at the context.

Matthew 5:48 is in regards to being perfect as your Heavenly Father is perfect. In it's immediate context, it is talking about how you need to love your enemies.

44 "But I say unto you, Love your enemies, bless them that curse you, do good to them that hate you, and pray for them which despitefully use you, and persecute you;
45 That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven:" (Matthew 5:44-45).

Is there a place in Scripture that says we will perish if we do not love our enemies in return?

Granted, while Matthew 5:48 can also be read a general command, we would need a verse or verses saying that not being perfect in this life will lead a believer to be burned in the Lake of Fire.

As for Matthew 5:18:
I already addressed this recently in my other posts to you.
 
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What is that exemption that you have made to us not being justified by the law of Moses--(as a whole, contractually speaking)? What do you mean by that? Are we justified by the law of Moses in part, and not according to contract, in your opinion?

As I said in my recent post, this would be like a man who is about to buy a house and the sellers offer him a contract. He reads over the contract and does not like it, and he wants to make changes to the contract. They agree to the changes and make a new contract. Some things in the old contract still remain the same, but the old contract is no more technically speaking. They will now go by the new contract as a part of him buying that house. This is what happened between the Old Covenant and the New Covenant. Hebrews 7:12 says the Law has changed. It's because the contract has changed (i.e. the Contract, or Covenant has changed).
 
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What is that exemption that you have made to us not being justified by the law of Moses--(as a whole, contractually speaking)? What do you mean by that? Are we justified by the law of Moses in part, and not according to contract, in your opinion?

Verses Showing How The Old Law (the Old Contract) is No More:

2 Corinthians 3:7-11, 2 Corinthians 3:14, Romans 7:4, Romans 7:6, Colossians 2:14, Colossians 2:20-23, Ephesians 2:15, Hebrews 7:18, Hebrews 8:13, Hebrews 9:9-10, Hebrews 9:15, Hebrews 9:16-17, Hebrews 10:8-9, Matthew 26:27-28, Matthew 27:20-51, Acts of the Apostles 15:1, Acts of the Apostles 15:5, Acts of the Apostles 15:24.
 
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Faith alone is perfectly compatible with Matthew 19:17 when you see it in light of 2 Corinthians 5:17.

"Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new." (2 Corinthians 5:17).

This would also include your mind being changed, as well.
A new mind that does not justify sin.
We have the mind of Christ (1 Corinthians 2:16).
If we have the mind of Christ, then we will not justify a doctrine or belief that says we can sin and still be saved.
Jesus never justified sin with the thinking He would be okay with His Father. Jesus always obeyed the Father.

So when you tell people that they are saved by God's grace and not in anything they do and you don't explain this new change of nature because you were busy, they could think you are teaching that they can sin and still be saved on some level.

Jesus really means what He says in Matthew 19:17. He says that if you will enter into life, keep the commandments. You really don't believe that because you have implied before that a person can disobey God's laws on some level and they can still be saved because all their future sin is paid for. For do you not believe that King David was saved while he committed his sins of adultery and murder? Do you not believe the OSAS interpretation on 1 John 1:8 that says we will always be in some kind of sin in this life or have sin in our life? Yet, you are still saved? Jesus says if you will enter into life, keep the commandments. This runs contrary to your grace teaching that says that not keeping the commands does not lead to life.
 
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Are you saying that you yourself are not a Christian?

It is against the forum rules to suggest or imply that a person who has already declared they are a Christian in their profile that they are not Christian. I have stated that I am a Non-Denominational Christian in my profile (Which you can see in the short bio of each of my posts). I was referring to their identity (Christians) and then I was referring to their beliefs.

I was referring to a certain group of Christians of here. I was not saying I was not Christian. Nowhere did I say that. That is you thinking the wrong thing. I accepted Christ in 1992 as my Savior by a Chick tract called "This was your life."
 
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@justbyfaith

This will be my last set of replies to you in this thread.
I said what I did to not convince you, but to shine the light of the truth of God's Word unto other readers (Who may come across this website reading).

May God's love shine upon you (even if we may disagree strongly on Soteriology).

Sincerely,

Jason.
 
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RDKirk

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Of course, it isn't alone in an absolute sense. All sorts of things probably can be said to accompany a lively or sincere faith. The slogan (Sola Fide) simply means that it alone is the mechanism by which individuals are saved.

I would go so far as to say that certain things must accompany a lively or sincere faith in a person, although it might not be immediately apparent to other people...but it ought to become apparent upon long enough consistent observation.

And any given individual might not be able to discern which came first within himself, if the question "which came first?" is even meaningful in this context.

Part of the reason there is a question about it is because our theology has so watered down scriptural faith to something that is merely an intellectual concept or philosophical notion rather than an active (if invisible) force that moves a person as surely and undeniably as gravity.
 
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justbyfaith

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Again, you have to pluck those verses you read by Paul that says we are not saved by the Law or by works out of their context to make it say it refer to the refer to the commands of Jesus. Paul was not referring to works of faith, or the commands of Jesus. Paul was referring to the Law of Moses, or the works of the Law of Moses.

Galatians 3:10, James 2:10, and Matthew 5:48 do indeed refer to the commands of Jesus, for they speak of the law, and do not specify the law of Moses. So they would therefore be referring to the law of the New Testament as well as the Old Testament law. If anyone does not believe in Jesus Christ, trusting in His finished work to save them, then they are "under the law" and are therefore "not under grace". If they are trusting in the finished work of Christ, they are "not under the law but under grace." (Romans 6:14). Therefore if someone places himself under the law by not trusting in the finished work of Christ, he or she is required to obey the requirement that God has set forth (whether in the Old or New Testaments). But if someone places their trust in the finished work of Christ, no law will condemn them, because they are redeemed through Jesus' shed blood, even the finished work of the Cross.

Galatians 3:10 is talking about the Law of Moses and not all law.

I beg to differ.

Paul is talking about stumbling in one point in regards to Law of Loving your neighbor. Look at the context.

Yes, the context makes it refer to both loving your neighbor and the whole of the Old Testament law. It includes, "Thou shalt not commit adultery" and "Thou shalt not kill" which are part of the ten commandments: therefore it is definitely referring to the ten commandments. Of course we know that Jesus, in His teaching, took the ten commandments to a higher level, bringing them home to the heart, so that simply getting angry with your brother without a cause is on the same level as murder, and lusting after a woman in your heart is on the same level as adultery.

Verses Showing How The Old Law (the Old Contract) is No More:

I believe that most, if not all, of those verses, speak of the fact that the law no longer condemns us from the outside. This is not to say that it doesn't govern us from the inside...see Hebrews 8:8-10, Hebrews 10:16, Romans 8:4, Romans 8:7, Romans 5:5 w/ Romans 13:8-10.

If we have the mind of Christ, then we will not justify a doctrine or belief that says we can sin and still be saved.

If we have the mind of Christ, then we know that we are not condemned by sins that we have committed that are under the blood. If we are not saved when we do sin, then we must be perfect in order to be saved; and the moment we sin after that, we are not saved anymore. Now that means that you yourself are not saved @Jason0047, for I don't think that you have ever been able to say that you don't sin anymore when you are asked this question, are you perfect, and do you still sin? If you sin, and we are not saved the moment we sin again, then the moment you sin, you are not saved. So you are no longer forgiven of sins that you committed before you attained perfection (which according to your own testimony you have not attained to); they are still held to your account. So are you forgiven of them again the moment you again attain to that state of "sinless perfection"? Is forgiveness based on your becoming perfect before God? If you sin again after being perfected, you would no longer be forgiven! All your sins would then condemn you and you would have to pay the penalty for all of them. So forgiveness would be based on your being perfected. And I can actually see that in scripture; but it is not very practical. Too many people are condemned according to this doctrine. Our sin is ever before us (Psalms 51:3); and therefore our only hope is forgiveness through the shed blood of Christ, not on the basis of being perfected by Him, but on the basis of what He did for us alone. We are washed and forgiven first, and then the process of sanctification happens as the result. We obey the Lord because we love Him, this is sanctification. But we love Him because He loved us first (1 John 4:19) and forgave us of much sin (Luke 7:36-50, Psalms 25:11). He will not impute sin to the believer, as a matter of fact (Romans 4:8). And this means that present and future sins are forgiven. Also things present and things to come cannot separate us from the love of God which is in Christ Jesus our Lord (Romans 8:38-39). Therefore if we sin in the present or in the future, that is a thing present or a thing to come and it will not separate us. Of course this only applies to those whose sins are under the blood, who have been made into new creatures in Christ (2 Corinthians 5:17). It is possible for someone who is a new creature to walk according to the old man (who he used to be); although it is not ideal. And when or if he does, the Holy Spirit will bring him back to relationship, and his standing before God has always been secure. For (Romans 4:5) the Lord justifies the ungodly, our faith is counted as righteousness even when we blow it; our identity in Christ is that we are righteous in Him; and the next step is for us to live like we are who He says we are in Him (1 John 3:7).

For do you not believe that King David was saved while he committed his sins of adultery and murder?

I believe that he was a son; but that he was dead and lost as concerned relationship (so no, in that sense he was not saved). However, if he was alive spiritually before committing adultery and murder (which I believe that he was), and also died spiritually when he committed adultery and murder, then how did he return to God? It would have been impossible for him to do so according to Hebrews 6:1-8! This is an interesting dilemma in scripture and a primary reason why I side with Calvinism on not a few issues.

Do you not believe the OSAS interpretation on 1 John 1:8 that says we will always be in some kind of sin in this life or have sin in our life?

1 John 1:8 is not in contradiction to 1 John 3:9. It is saying that we are indwelt by the element of sin in our mortal flesh; but that we do not have to be obedient to that element within us: we are capable, if we have the Holy Spirit, of living according to the Holy Spirit rather than according to the element of sin that dwells within us (the flesh).

It is against the forum rules to suggest or imply that a person who has already declared they are a Christian in their profile that they are not Christian. I have stated that I am a Non-Denominational Christian in my profile (Which you can see in the short bio of each of my posts). I was referring to their identity (Christians) and then I was referring to their beliefs.

I was referring to a certain group of Christians of here. I was not saying I was not Christian. Nowhere did I say that. That is you thinking the wrong thing. I accepted Christ in 1992 as my Savior by a Chick tract called "This was your life."

Sorry, I did not suggest or imply that you were not a Christian. It simply appeared to me that your own statement implied that you were not. Because you placed the word "you" in front of the word "Christians" rather than the word "we". What was I supposed to think? It seemed to me that you were disassociating yourself from the designation of Christian in your post. So I asked you to clarify.

This will be my last set of replies to you in this thread.

That is fine.
 
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@justbyfaith

I told you I would not reply to your posts anymore. I only replied out of the benefit of other believers who may read this thread at a later time. I am confident that the Word of God had shown (with my explanations) stands enough on their own and needs no further defense. Those who want to do evil under God's grace are going to do evil, and those who want to do good under God's grace are going to do good. The choice is up to the individual and what mindset they have with GOD. Do they want to do the right thing or the wrong thing?
 
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justbyfaith

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@justbyfaith

I told you I would not reply to your posts anymore. I only replied out of the benefit of other believers who may read this thread at a later time. I am confident that the Word of God had shown (with my explanations) stands enough on their own and needs no further defense. Those who want to do evil under God's grace are going to do evil, and those who want to do good under God's grace are going to do good. The choice is up to the individual and what mindset they have with GOD. Do they want to do the right thing or the wrong thing?
Amen.

Isaiah 26:10 bears witness to that well enough.

I also am responding for the sake of those who look on.
 
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