I said:
"Only if John had left the word "abiding" out of the verse.
But he didn't.
So all you do is keep showing your lack of discernment about what "abiding" means."
"Abiding in Jesus" is the same as being "in Christ".
No it's not. Impossible.
Here's why: Jesus commanded His 11 disciples to "abide in Him" and then He would "abide in them" in John 15. Per your misunderstanding, being in union with Christ is something that we achieve or cause. Nothing could be further from the truth.
Eph 1:13,14 tells us HOW one is in union with Christ; through the sealing with the Holy Spirit. This is God's work, not our own.
What we are responsible for is maintaining fellowship with the Lord, which is what "abiding" refers to. Our relationship with the Lord is permanent, just like the relationship between parent and child.
But fellowship describes the quality of that relationship.
And Paul gave us 2 commands that describe what being OUT OF fellowship looks like:
1. stop grieving the Holy Spirit - Eph 4:30
2. stop quenching the Holy Spirit - 1 Thess 5:19
When any believer is doing either of these things, they are NOT "abiding in Him". Not by a long shot. And Jesus cannot "abide with him/her" when they are doing these things.
But, these terms mean quite different things
than what you believe they mean.
They are talking about BACs who are "the faithful",
i.e. those who walk the walk and don't just talk the talk.
Define "BAC". And explain these "different things" you claim.
Paul wrote ONLY to "the faithful" at Ephesus & Colossae.
Oh, please. Not that tired claim again.
As if nothing Paul wrote to those 2 churches has any relevance to unfaithful believers? Don't be silly.
Do you really believe that Paul's message to those 2 churches was materially different than to all the other churches He wrote to?
a. Corinthians
b. Galatians
c. Philippians
d. Thessalonians
There are parallels throughout the epistles, so don't give this song-and-dance about either Ephesus and Colossae being only for certain believers.
What about the command Paul gave the Ephesians about stopping grieving the Hoy Spirit in 4:30. That alone shoots down your theory. But there's more.
Why would He write this to "the faithful"?
4:17 - So I tell you this, and insist on it in the Lord, that
you must no longer live as the Gentiles do, in the futility of their thinking.
The Greek wording here in red means to STOP doing so.
Just read 5:1-6 and tell me why he would write those things to "the faithful" only at Ephesus.
1 Follow God’s example, therefore, as dearly loved children
2 and walk in the way of love, just as Christ loved us and gave himself up for us as a fragrant offering and sacrifice to God.
3 But among you there must not be even a hint of sexual immorality, or of any kind of impurity, or of greed, because these are improper for God’s holy people.
4 Nor should there be obscenity, foolish talk or coarse joking, which are out of place, but rather thanksgiving.
5For of this you can be sure: No immoral, impure or greedy person—such a person is an idolater—has any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God.
6 Let no one deceive you with empty words, for because of such things God’s wrath comes on those who are disobedient.
All of the "promises" were ONLY to these "faithful" ones!
What you have conveniently ignored are all the warnings that are there as well.
No one is "abiding in Christ" who ONLY believes in Him,
has faith and trust in Him. Obedience is required.
Yes, correct. Believing in Christ seals the relationship with Him as a child of God.
But, just as in human families, the goal is fellowship between members of the family, so in our spiritual family of God, we are to be in fellowship with the Lord, which is the only way to bear fruit (John 15).
Now, for each and every point you disagree with, please address such point and explain why my point is wrong.
Thanks.