Phil 1:21
Well-Known Member
"Therefore, since we are surrounded by such a great cloud of witnesses, let us throw off everything that hinders and the sin that so easily entangles. And let us run with perseverance the race marked out for us, 2 fixing our eyes on Jesus, the pioneer and perfecter of faith. For the joy set before him he endured the cross, scorning its shame, and sat down at the right hand of the throne of God. 3 Consider him who endured such opposition from sinners, so that you will not grow weary and lose heart." Hebrews 12:1-3As you may or may not be aware, I earnestly and genuinely searched for answers in Christ for 30+ years, only to come up drastically short. So even if God presented to me in a way in which God felt was sufficient, and if I am being intellectually honest, I either missed the revelation, or am too ignorant to 'see' such a stated path.
Either way, my doubt or severe skepticism stems from lack in evidence, despite decades of honest inquiry. So maybe I just need to keep 'pluggin' along, down the very same path I used to do, in
direct accordance with verses Matthew 7:7, Matthew 21:22, Mark 11:24, John 14:13-14, John 16:23.
But as they say, insanity is doing the same thing over and over again, expecting a differing result.
I have yet to receive, what I view, as a genuine response from anything other than my own thoughts. So again, you may view it as legitimate, but I may not. But in being honest with myself, I cannot lie to myself and state I received my 'God provided' path, when I do not 'think' I actually ever did.
"20 But Christ has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. 22 For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive." 1 Corinthians 15:20-22Then what exactly was the actual point to present postmortem evidence, in a resurrection, to many humans? It was to demonstrate that He was the Messiah to humans, with evidence. Why present to 100's/1,000's otherwise? Jesus could have instead just conquered death and stated He did so in revelation of later scripture, while not actually producing resurrection evidence.
So again, why later present to Paul specifically in a revelation - (which was the foundation for the NT)? You made absolutely no attempt to answer.
See post #9Again, you have made absolutely no attempt in addressing my observations. In a prior response, it would appear you eluded to 'blasphemy' as being synonymous with 'unbelief', in a specific context?
(i.e.): 'In proper context, it's actually the sin of unbelief. The Pharisees attributed the works of God to satan because they did not believe Jesus was the Messiah.'
If so, this does not jive...
Unbelief already has it's own category, in verses Mark 16:15-16, John 3:16-21, etc... Blasphemy is instead to take the Lord's name in vain, for all intensive purposes. Or more in line with Commandment #3. You could take the Lord's name in vain postmortem, but this would be irrelevant. The verse would HAVE to pertain to blasphemy while STILL alive on earth. Which means it speaks about blaspheming God prior to human death. Which then further supports my initial observation that once one blasphemes, and later tries to repent while still alive, will be denied, according to scripture.
Maybe take a fresh 'relook' at Mark 3:28-30 please?
Specifically 'whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit will never be forgiven, but is guilty of an eternal sin.'
In conclusion, to blaspheme, or speak adversely against the Holy Ghost while on earth, is unforgivable. If it simply instead referred to unbelief prior to human death, it would state as such clearly, and not require looking for random Bible verses to make it fit with your very specific agenda - (via redefining 'blasphemy' to instead mean 'sin of unbelief' in some obscure way).
Upvote
0