DEFINITIONS ARE IMPORTANT (A title is intended, not shouting by the caps)
Predestination is based on God's foreknowledge of our free choices, and not the other way around:
"For those whom God foreknew He also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of His Son" -- (Rom 8:29)
God knows beforehand what we will freely choose in the future (foreknew), and He determines beforehand our destiny (predestined) based on those free choices.
God's foreknowledge of our future choices is what predetermines our destiny.
FOREKNOWLEDGE ---- This term is simply the term for knowledge of a person. In the LXX, the same word is used for when Adam "knew" Eve. The only difference is that a prefix is attached to the word which means "before." This foreknowledge is not intended to be a crystal ball to look into the future and see who is going to have faith, and not even a look into the future to see good works. It is a pre-loving knowledge of a person. While the word is not used in Romans 9:12 this is a good illustration of the concept of foreknowledge... "
it was said unto her, The elder shall serve the younger. Even as it is written, Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated." God foreknew Jacob, and he fore loved Jacob and chose to bless Jacob in election due to his foreknowing love for Jacob.
Generally when people point out that predestination is based upon foreknowledge, they assume that it is foreseen faith. That is not in the meaning of the term "foreknowledge."
FREE CHOICES OR FREE WILL --- The Bible speaks frequently on the will of man. Anyone can easily quote passages with the term "will" in it (referring to Human will). People can point to men making choices in the Bible. People can point to passages where God requests that people make a choice, the most famous is the quote from Joshua. Then they assume that human choice means the same thing as free will. That is totally Non-sequitur.
I find it interesting that the bible never once speaks of "free will" when referring to humans. The only time it uses the term "free will" is with reference to the OT sacrificial offerings called "free will offerings." The Bible never uses the term with reference to human will. Now some will use the trinity argument here that the Bible never uses the term "trinity." However, all I am saying, is that it should call for a biblical investigation into the term "free will" and also to more finely define the term.
John MacArthur one said "we have the free will to choose any path of sin we desire." Johnny Mac is playing with the term. He uses the term in a way which keeps a doctrine of orthodoxy within the meaning of the term. That doctrine is the doctrine of original sin. This goes back to the original free willer, Pelagius. Pelagius defined the term "free will" in a way to deny original sin and the fall of man. Many in these threads would be Pelagian in their doctrine. McArthur uses the term in a very non-Pelagian sense because he says free will can be used to determine what path of sin is chosen, but no man can choose Christ without regeneration is a concept behind McArthurs words.
"The word of the LORD came to me, saying, 'Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, before you were born I set you apart; I appointed you as a prophet to the nations.'" -- (
Jeremiah 1:4-5)
Before Jeremiah was conceived in the womb God
predestined him to be a prophet based on God's
foreknowledge of Jeremiah's
future choices.
God
foreknew the
free choices that Jeremiah would make, and God
predetermined what Jeremiah would become (a prophet) based on those
free choices.
This again is comparing apples to oranges. Jeremiah's choice to become a prophet is not the same thing as his choice to trust God for justification. This is a long story and I am going to skip this, but say that this passage in Jeremiah has more to do with him being a "like Moses prophet." As far as prophetic choices, did Jonah choose to go to Nineveh? Jonah's choice was Tarsus, God did not care what Jonah chose. God chose Jonah to go to Nineveh and Jonah could choose to refuse, but to Nineveh he would go. In this case, God may of known the free choice of man, but God chose to completely violate Jonah's choice. Where is free will there? Who won?
The same is true of all mankind:
"Does not the potter have power over the clay, from the same lump to make one vessel for honor and another for dishonor?
What if God, choosing to show His wrath and make His power known, bore with great patience the objects of His wrath — prepared for destruction?
What if He did this to make the riches of His glory known to the objects of His mercy, whom He prepared in advance for glory" -- (Rom 9:21-23)
The vessel for dishonor that is prepared for destruction are those whom God foreknew would make wrong choices.
The vessel for honor that is prepared for glory are those whom God foreknew would make right choices.
"For those whom God foreknew He also predestined" -- (Rom 8:29)
I must compliment you for even attempting to use Romans 9 at all.
Nevertheless, if God's predestination is based upon peeking into the future to see who has faith, then why would verse 16 say... "
So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that hath mercy?" In verse 19 the text says "
Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he still find fault? For who withstandeth his will?" Would not your claim to understand the will of God that Gods choice is limited to those who first choose him in faith be a violation of this very verse?
If any text is scripture loudly proclaims the free will of God, it is this text. If man has totally free will, then God is not sovereign.