Is aionion necessarily coequal in duration with aionion (in Mt.25:46)?

he-man

he-man
Oct 28, 2010
8,891
301
usa
✟90,748.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
My friend: Surely you do not expect he-man to answer one of these questions! His scope is limited with a capital L.

My brother I am taking the liberty to place the list over on a couple of other threads. Perhaps there are wiser individuals than he-man who will take a stab at a couple. We shall not hold our breath but perhaps!
Aint no personel devil.
After a brief statement of some facts relating to the use of the neuter in the LXX, he continues: 'The masculine ο πονηρος is used, as is also its Hebrew equivalent, to designate a wicked man, when an individual is pointed out;

but it is never used in the Septuagint to designate the ' Evil One.' It certainly would not occur to any one familiar with the language of the Septuagint, to interpret the word as equivalent to Satan; nor is it at all probable that in a Gospel written specially for the use of Hebrew Christians the words του πονηρου would be employed in any other sense than that generally, I may say universally, accepted by readers of that Version.'

Here I will simply notice the facts (1) that the new rendering " the evil one " is an innovation in language, the word wicked being invariably used by the Authorized Version in speaking of Satan; (2) that it narrows the broad, comprehensive sense of the Greek; (3) that it implies incompleteness in the deliverance already accomplished by our Lord; (4) that it has no counterpart or justification in the New Testament ;

Devil (ó διaβoλoς of which the English term is but a νariatίon of). This term signifies one who is a slanderer, ánd is sometime applied to any slanderer (calumniator) 1 Peter 5:8, It is exρressly called "the opponent (accuser) (αντιofικofς) of the brethren,"

The word is found in the plural number and adjective sense in 1 Tim 3, 11; with the articles as a descriptive name, except that in John 6, 70, it is apρlied to Judas (as to Peter in Μatt. 16, 23), because they were doing Satan's ["the opponent (accuser)] work

Τhe same slander is imρlied rather than expessed in the temptations of our Lord, and is oνercome bγ the faith which trusts in Gods love even where its sign may be hidden from the eye (comρ. the unmasking of a similar slander by Peter in Acts 5, 4).
Lightfoot P. 273-283 Revision of the English Version of the New Testament

But in truth, the question touches on two mysteries, the relation of the infinite to the finite sρirit, and the permission of the existence of evil under the government of him whom is "the Good." As a part of these it must be viewed —to the latter esρecially it belongs; and this latter, while it is the great mystery of all, is also one in which the facts are proved to us by incontrovertible evidence.—Smith, s. v.

DAEMON. Lev. 17, 7, the word translated " deνil" is (sair', hairy), ordinarily a"goat," but rendered " satyr" in Isa. 34, 14 ; probably alluding to the wood-daemons, resembling he-goats, supposed to live in deserts, and which were an objects of idolatry and beast worship upon the Heathens. [Matthew 25:33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.]

The term rendered "devil" in Deut. 32,17; Psa. 106, 37, is a (shed. properly lord, Sept. and Vulg. Daemon),: an idol, since the Jew regarded it as demons that caused themselves to be worshiped by men.

The belief of the Hebrews down to the Babylonian exile seems but dimly to have recognized either Satan or demons, at least as a dogmatic tenet, nor had it many occasions for them, since it treated moral evils as a properly humans act (comp. Gen. 3), and always as subjective and concrete, but regarded misfortunes according to teleological axioms, as a punishment deserved on account of sin at the hand of a righteous God, who inflicted it especially by the agency of one of his angels

Earlier, indeed, a Satan, so called by way of eminence, occasionally appears as the malicious author of human misfortune, but only under the divine superintendence: e. g. incites David to a sinful act, (1 Chron. 21, 1); casts suspicions upon Job's piety (Job 1, 6' sq.), and, with Jehovah's permission, inflicts upon him a lot gradually more severe to the utmost point of endurance; appears as the mendacious impeacher (α κατηυωρ, Rey. 12, 10) οf the high-priest Joshua before the angel of God, but draws upon himself the divine malediction (Zech. 3, 1 sq.).

Yet in all this he is as little like the Ahriman of the Zend Aνesta (Rhode, Heil. Sage, p. 182 sq.; Matthai, Religionsgloube d. Apostel, II, i, 171 sq.; Creuzer, Symbol. i. 705) as an indifferent prosecuting attorney general or judicial suρerintendent commissioned by Jehovah.

Daemons are not mentioned in the canonical books of the Old Test., unless (with many interpreters) we understand "the host of the high ones" in Isa. 24, 21 [the kings of the earth, comp. Dan. 8. 8), the “he goat”] (comp. Isa. 14, 12), and interpret the whole passage as referring to the punishment [of the King of Babylon].

(in as much as from the hand of God only good can come, but against him, the Creator of the universe, no opposing being could originally exist) ; but through their own fault they fell (John 8, 44; 2 Pet. 2, 4; Jude 6);when Christ shall appear to overthrow the kingdom of [death] Satan (1 Cor. 15, 26; Heb. 2, 14; 1 John 2, 8). and it is much to be regretted that Wycliffe's translation of διαμονιον by ' fiend ' was not adopted by Tyndale, in which case it would probably have become the current rendering. Winer, 2, 385

From every one who hears the word of the kingdom and does not understand it , the wicked comes and catches away what was sown in his heart: this is he that is sown by the wayside.

Now as for the dead, they are conscious of nothing at all
“The living are conscious that they will die; but as for the dead, they are conscious of nothing at all.” (NWT)

“A live dog is better off than a dead lion. For the living are conscious that they will die; but as for the dead, they are conscious of nothing at all, neither do they anymore have reward [H7939 śâkâr From H7986; reward,] because the remembrance of them has been forgotten.” (Ecclesiastes 9:4, 5)

1Thessalonians 4:14 For if we believe that Yahshua died and rose again, even so Yahweh will bring with Him those who sleep in Yahshua

The first thing you have needs to understand is that no man prior to Jesus Christ has ever went to Heaven.

John 3:13
And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, [even] the Son of man which is in heaven.

While in the 10 references we have just examined hades refers to the grave or the realm of the dead, in the parable of the rich man and Lazarus it denotes the place of punishment for the ungodly (Luke 16:23).

2Th 1:9  who shall pay the penalty of everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his might, 
 
Upvote 0

FineLinen

Senior Veteran
Site Supporter
Jan 15, 2003
12,119
6,396
81
The Kingdom of His dear Son
✟528,512.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Dear he-man: forget about the dead lions and the live dogs! In black and white answers, answer for us the first 10 questions>>>>>

1. As we are required to love our enemies, may we not safely infer that God loves His enemies? (Matt. 5:44)

2. If God loves His enemies, will He punish them more than will be for their good?

3. Would endless punishment be for the good of any being?

4. As God loves His friends, if He loves His enemies also, are not all mankind the objects of His love?

5. If God loves those only who love Him, what better is He than the sinner? (Luke 6:32-33)

6. As "love thinketh no evil," can God design the ultimate evil of a single soul? (1 Cor. 13:5)

7. As "love worketh no ill," can God inflict, or cause, or allow to be inflicted, an endless ill? (Rom. 13:10)

8. As we are forbidden to be overcome by evil, can we safely suppose that God will be overcome by evil? (Rom. 12:21)

9. Would not the infliction of endless punishment prove that God HAD been overcome by evil?

10. If man does wrong in returning evil for evil, would not God do wrong if He was to do the same?
 
Upvote 0

he-man

he-man
Oct 28, 2010
8,891
301
usa
✟90,748.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Dear he-man: forget about the dead lions and the live dogs! In black and white answers, answer for us the first 10 questions>>>>>

1. As we are required to love our enemies, may we not safely infer that God loves His enemies? (Matt. 5:44)

2. If God loves His enemies, will He punish them more than will be for their good?

3. Would endless punishment be for the good of any being?

4. As God loves His friends, if He loves His enemies also, are not all mankind the objects of His love?

5. If God loves those only who love Him, what better is He than the sinner? (Luke 6:32-33)

6. As "love thinketh no evil," can God design the ultimate evil of a single soul? (1 Cor. 13:5)

7. As "love worketh no ill," can God inflict, or cause, or allow to be inflicted, an endless ill? (Rom. 13:10)

8. As we are forbidden to be overcome by evil, can we safely suppose that God will be overcome by evil? (Rom. 12:21)

9. Would not the infliction of endless punishment prove that God HAD been overcome by evil?

10. If man does wrong in returning evil for evil, would not God do wrong if He was to do the same?
1. As we are required to love our enemies, may we not safely infer that God loves His enemies? (Matt. 5:44)
Answer: James 4:4 Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.

2. If God loves His enemies, will He punish them more than will be for their good?
Answer: Hebrews 12:25 See that ye refuse not him that speaketh. For if they escaped not who refused him that spake on earth, much more shall not we escape, if we turn away from him that speaketh from heaven:

3. Would endless punishment be for the good of any being?
Answer: Paul did regard it as possible, however, for people to lose or completely betray their faith in Christ and thus lose membership in his body, which presumably would lead to destruction at the Judgment (Romans 11:22; 1 Corinthians 3:16–17; 2 Corinthians 11:13–15).

4. As God loves His friends, if He loves His enemies also, are not all mankind the objects of His love?
Answer: Revelation19:19 And I saw the beast, and the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against him that sat on the horse, and against his army.

5. If God loves those only who love Him, what better is He than the sinner? (Luke 6:32-33)
Answer: Matthew 5:47 And if ye salute your brethren only, what do ye more than others? do not even the publicans so. 1 Peter 2:23 Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed himself to Him that judgeth righteously:

6. As "love thinketh no evil," can God design the ultimate evil of a single soul? (1 Cor. 13:5)
Answer: 1 Kings 9:9 And they shall answer, Because they forsook the LORD their God, who brought forth their fathers out of the land of Egypt, and have taken hold upon other gods, and have worshipped them, and served them: therefore hath the LORD brought upon them all this evil.
1 Chronicles 21:15 And God sent an angel unto Jerusalem to destroy it: and as he was destroying, the LORD beheld, and he repented him of the evil, and said to the angel that destroyed, It is enough, stay now thine hand. And the angel of the LORD stood by the threshingfloor of Ornan the Jebusite.
Job 2:10 But he said unto her, Thou speakest as one of the foolish women speaketh. What? shall we receive good at the hand of God, and shall we not receive evil? In all this did not Job sin with his lips.

7. As "love worketh no ill," can God inflict, or cause, or allow to be inflicted, an endless ill? (Rom. 13:10)
Answer: Malachi 2:17 Ye have wearied the LORD with your words. Yet ye say, Wherein have we wearied him? When ye say, Every one that doeth evil is good in the sight of the LORD, and he delighteth in them; or, Where is the God of judgment?

8. As we are forbidden to be overcome by evil, can we safely suppose that God will be overcome by evil? (Rom. 12:21)
Answer: Daniel 9:14 Therefore hath the LORD watched upon the evil, and brought it upon us: for the LORD our God is righteous in all his works which he doeth: for we obeyed not his voice.

9. Would not the infliction of endless punishment prove that God HAD been overcome by evil?
Answer: 2 Peter 2:1 But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.
2 Peter 3:16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.
Matthew 7:13 Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat:

10. If man does wrong in returning evil for evil, would not God do wrong if He was to do the same?
Answer: Isaiah 5:20 Woe unto them that call evil good, and good evil; that put darkness for light, and light for darkness; that put bitter for sweet, and sweet for bitter!
Isaiah 45:7 I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.
 
Upvote 0

FineLinen

Senior Veteran
Site Supporter
Jan 15, 2003
12,119
6,396
81
The Kingdom of His dear Son
✟528,512.00
Faith
Non-Denom
1. As we are required to love our enemies, may we not safely infer that God loves His enemies? (Matt. 5:44)
Answer: James 4:4 Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.

Dear he-man: you will note the friendship of the world by adulterers is not what is at issue. God loves His enemies and ultimately makes every last one of them friends. The scope of the rectification in Christ Jesus the Lord is to the same mass made sinners being made righteous! The same exact polus!
 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

cwo

Active Member
Jul 21, 2018
38
24
37
Pompano Beach, FL
✟1,074.00
Country
United States
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
As for Matthew 25:46, allegedly universalism can be harmonized, as per the remarks below, with any of at least three different views re the "life" & "punishment" of that verse: (1) both life and punishment are eternal or everlasting, (2) both are finite, (3) life is eternal, punishment is finite.



Maybe. Maybe not. Either way universalism is Bible truth & "eternal" is a deceptive translation.

Is aionios used "differently" in each of its two occurrences in Rom.16:25-26? Is the aionios God (Rom.16:26) of the same duration as "long ages" (Rom.16:25, NIV, NASB, ESV, NET, WEY, YLT, etc) during which a revelation was kept secret (v.25) but is "now revealed" (v.26a)? Why, then, is it assumed aionios life must be of the same duration as aionios punishment (Mt.25:46)?

Is a tall building the same height as a tall blade of grass? No. Why, then, is it assumed aionios life must be of the same duration as aionios punishment (Mt.25:46)? In the sentence "The blessed stay in a tall high rise, but the wicked in a tall dungeon", is the high rise equally as tall as the dungeon?

Just as the adjective tall varies with what it refers to, so also the adjective aionion (eonian) varies with what it refers to. A tall man is not the same size as a tall tree or highrise or mountain. Likewise:

"So of aiónion; applied to Jonah's residence in the fish, it means seventy hours; to the priesthood of Aaron, it signifies several centuries; to the mountains, thousands of years; to the punishments of a merciful God, as long as is necessary to vindicate his law and reform his children; to God himself, eternity." AIN -- AINIOS

Similarly, a long life need not be of the same duration as a long punishment. A perpetual life is not necessarily of the same duration as a perpetual punishment.

Is the aion of an ant of the same duration as the aion of a tree?

"There are as many eons as entities, the respective durations of which are fixed by the normal conditions of the several entities. There is one eon of a human life, another of the life of a nation, another of a crow’s life, another of an oak’s life. The length of the eon depends on the subject to which it is attached." (WORD STUDIES IN THE NEW TESTAMENT by MARVIN R. VINCENT, D.D." https://www.hopefaithprayer.com/books/Word-Studies-in-the-New-Testament-Vol-3&4-Marvin-R-Vincent.pdf

Is the church age eon of the same duration as the internet age eon? Is the eon of a geological age of the same duration as the millennial eon? If not, then why should eonian in Mt.25:46 have to be of the same duration in reference to punishment & life?

If believers go into the life aionios (i.e. pertaining to the age to come) & unbelievers go into the punishment aionios (i.e. pertaining to the age to come), does that prove that the punishment must absolutely be co-extensive with the life? No. Does it prove that the age to come is not finite? No.

Could both occurrences of aionios in Mt.25:46 refer to a finite age (or ages) to come? Yes.

If aionios is of equal duration in both occurrences of Mt.25:46, shouldn't "all mankind" (Rom.5:18), "the many" (Rom.5:19) and "all" (1 Cor.15:22, 28) be co-extensive in number in these passages:

Rom 5:18 Consequently, then, as it was through one offense for ALL MANKIND for condemnation, thus also it is through one just act for ALL MANKIND for life's justifying."
Rom 5:19 For even as, through the disobedience of the one man, THE MANY were constituted sinners, thus also, through the obedience of the One, THE MANY shall be constituted just."

1 Cor.15:22 AS in Adam ALL die - so also - in Christ shall ALL be made alive.
1 Cor.15:28 And when ALL shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in ALL.

"Augustine raised the argument that since aionios in Mt. 25:46 referred to both life and punishment, it had to carry the same duration in both cases. However, he failed to consider that the duration of aionios is determined by the subject to which it refers. For example, when aionios referred to the duration of Jonah’s entrapment in the fish, it was limited to three days. To a slave, aionios referred to his life span. To the Aaronic priesthood, it referred to the generation preceding the Melchizedek priesthood. To Solomon’s temple, it referred to 400 years. To God it encompasses and transcends time altogether."

"Thus, the word cannot have a set value. It is a relative term and its duration depends upon that with which it is associated. It is similar to what “tall” is to height. The size of a tall building can be 300 feet, a tall man six feet, and a tall dog three feet...An adjective relates to the noun it modifies."
Eternity in the Bible by Gerry Beauchemin – Hope Beyond Hell
http://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf

"...It is simply contrary to historical fact to suggest that the essence of these time expressions is that of endless duration. As Thomas De Quincey, the nineteenth century essayist and literary critic states: “All this speculation, first and last, is pure nonsense. Aiõnios does not mean ‘eternal,’ neither does it mean of limited duration . . . . What is an aiõn? The duration or cycle of existence which belongs to any object, not individually of itself, but universally, in right of its genius [i.e., inherent nature] . . . . The exact amount of the duration expressed by an aiõn depends altogether upon the particular subject which yields the aiõn.” " Eon As Indefinte Duration, Part Three

Philosophy professor Tom Talbott, author of "The Inescapable Love of God", remarked:

"Whatever its correct translation, “aionios” is clearly an adjective and must therefore function like an adjective, and it is the very nature of an adjective for its meaning to vary, sometimes greatly, depending upon which noun it qualifies. For more often than not, the noun helps to determine the precise force of the adjective. As an illustration, set aside the Greek word “aionios” for a moment and consider the English word “everlasting.” I think it safe to say that the basic meaning of this English word is indeed everlasting. So now consider how the precise force of “everlasting” varies depending upon which noun it qualifies. An everlasting struggle would no doubt be a struggle without end, an unending temporal process that never comes to a point of resolution and never gets completed. But an everlasting change, or an everlasting correction, or an everlasting transformation would hardly be an unending temporal process that never gets completed; instead, it would be a temporal process of limited duration, or perhaps simply an instantaneous event, that terminates in an irreversible state. So however popular it might be, the argument that “aionios” must have exactly the same force regardless of which noun it qualifies in Matthew 25:46 is clearly fallacious."

"Accordingly, even if we should translate “aionios” with the English word “everlasting,” a lot would still depend upon how we understand the relevant nouns in our text: the nouns “life” (zoe) and “punishment” (kolasis). Now the kind of life in question, being rightly related to God, is clearly an end in itself, even as the kind of punishment in question seems just as clearly to be a means to an end. For as one New Testament scholar, William Barclay, has pointed out, “kolasis” “was not originally an ethical word at all. It originally meant the pruning of trees to make them grow better.” Barclay also claimed that “in all Greek secular literature kolasis is never used of anything but remedial punishment”–which is probably a bit of a stretch, since the language of correction and the language of retribution often get mixed together in ordinary language. But in any event, if “kolasis” does signify punishment of a remedial or a corrective kind, as I think it does in Matthew 25:46, then we can reasonably think of such punishment as everlasting in the sense that its corrective effects literally endure forever. Or, to put it another way: An everlasting correction, whenever successfully completed, would be a temporal process of limited duration that terminates in the irreversible state of being rightly related to God. Certainly nothing in the context of Matthew 25 excludes such an interpretation."

"This would not be my preferred interpretation, however, because the English word “everlasting” does not accurately capture the special religious meaning that “aionios” typically has in the New Testament."

Talbott on Matthew 25:41, 46?

https://www.amazon.com/Inescapable-...498222412/ref=cm_cr_arp_d_pdt_img_top?ie=UTF8

https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf

Read this study on "aeonial" http://www.wisdomofgod.co/2017/04/2...s-and-the-mistranslation-of-forever-and-ever/ .
 
Upvote 0

he-man

he-man
Oct 28, 2010
8,891
301
usa
✟90,748.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Private
Dear he-man: you will note the friendship of the world by adulterers is not what is at issue. God loves His enemies and ultimately makes every last one of them friends. The scope of the rectification in Christ Jesus the Lord is to the same mass made sinners being made righteous! The same exact polus!
Wake up and smell the ROSES!
1. As we are required to love our enemies, may we not safely infer that God loves His enemies? (Matt. 5:44)
Answer: James 4:4 Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.

2. If God loves His enemies, will He punish them more than will be for their good?
Answer: Hebrews 12:25 See that ye refuse not him that speaketh. For if they escaped not who refused him that spake on earth, much more shall not we escape, if we turn away from him that speaketh from heaven:

3. Would endless punishment be for the good of any being?
Answer: Paul did regard it as possible, however, for people to lose or completely betray their faith in Christ and thus lose membership in his body, which presumably would lead to destruction at the Judgment (Romans 11:22; 1 Corinthians 3:16–17; 2 Corinthians 11:13–15).

4. As God loves His friends, if He loves His enemies also, are not all mankind the objects of His love?
Answer: Revelation19:19 And I saw the beast, the kings of the earth, and their armies, gathered together to make war against him that sat on the horse, and against his army.

5. If God loves those only who love Him, what better is He than the sinner? (Luke 6:32-33)
Answer: Matthew 5:47 And if ye salute your brethren only, what do ye more than others? do not even the publicans so. 1 Peter 2:23 Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed himself to Him that judgeth righteously:

6. As "love thinketh no evil," can God design the ultimate evil of a single soul? (1 Cor. 13:5)
Answer: 1 Kings 9:9 And they shall answer, Because they forsook the LORD their God, who brought forth their fathers out of the land of Egypt, and have taken hold upon other gods, and have worshipped them, and served them: therefore hath the LORD brought upon them all this evil.

1 Chronicles 21:15 And God sent an angel unto Jerusalem to destroy it: and as he was destroying, the LORD beheld, and he repented him of the evil, and said to the angel that destroyed, It is enough, stay now thine hand. And the angel of the LORD stood by the threshingfloor of Ornan the Jebusite.
Job 2:10 But he said unto her, Thou speakest as one of the foolish women speaketh. What? shall we receive good at the hand of God, and shall we not receive evil? In all this did not Job sin with his lips.

7. As "love worketh no ill," can God inflict, or cause, or allow to be inflicted, an endless ill? (Rom. 13:10)
Answer: Malachi 2:17 Ye have wearied the LORD with your words. Yet ye say, Wherein have we wearied him? When ye say, Every one that doeth evil is good in the sight of the LORD, and he delighteth in them; or, Where is the God of judgment?

8. As we are forbidden to be overcome by evil, can we safely suppose that God will be overcome by evil? (Rom. 12:21)
Answer: Daniel 9:14 Therefore hath the LORD watched upon the evil, and brought it upon us: for the LORD our God is righteous in all his works which he doeth: for we obeyed not his voice.

9. Would not the infliction of endless punishment prove that God HAD been overcome by evil?
Answer: 2 Peter 2:1 But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.
2 Peter 3:16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.
Matthew 7:13 Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat:

10. If man does wrong in returning evil for evil, would not God do wrong if He was to do the same?
Answer: Isaiah 5:20 Woe unto them that call evil good, and good evil; that put darkness for light, and light for darkness; that put bitter for sweet, and sweet for bitter!
Isaiah 45:7 I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.
 
Upvote 0

FineLinen

Senior Veteran
Site Supporter
Jan 15, 2003
12,119
6,396
81
The Kingdom of His dear Son
✟528,512.00
Faith
Non-Denom
Wake up and smell the ROSES!

Dear he-man: what part of the equation did F.L. sleep through or miss the fragrance?
Would it be Adam1 or the Last Adam? Perhaps it is the koine "polus" I have slept through.

"The mass of mankind are made sinners" "The mass of mankind are made righteous."
 
Upvote 0