The standard teaching in the present day churches is that yes, we cannot save ourselves : That the only thing we have is our own free will, to either choose or reject God . Well does the Bible teach that we choose God of our own free will ? JOHN 1 ( 13) : ” Which were born NOT OF THE WILL OF MAN , BUT OF GOD ! ” ROMANS 9 ( 16 ) : ” So then IT IS NOT OF HIM THAT WILLETH , BUT OF GOD . ” JAMES 1 ( 18 ) : ” OF HIS OWN WILL begat he us with the word . ” So according to the Bible : It is NOT OF MAN’S WILL , BUT ONLY GOD’S WILL ! EPHESIANS 1 ( 11 ) : ” Him who works ALL THINGS AFTER the counsel of HIS OWN WILL . ” : ALL THINGS AFTER HIS WILL LEAVES NO PLACE FOR OUR OWN SUPPOSED FREE WILL ! So this teaching that man has his own free will is completely contrary to scripture : It falsely exalts man with power that he in truth does not have. Well you might ask : Why did not God not give man his own free will ? HEBREWS 12 ( 2 ) : ” Looking unto JESUS , THE AUTHOR AND FINISHER OF OUR FAITH ! ” : So CHRIST IS THE SOLE AUTHOR AND FINISHER OF OUR FAITH ! THERE IS NO ONE BETTER QUALIFIED THAN CHRIST TO TRAIN US : CERTAINLY NOT OURSELVES : SO THIS IS PRECISELY WHY CHRIST DID NOT GIVE US A FREE WILL , BECAUSE ONLY CHRIST CAN DO A PROPER JOB ! Only CHRIST knows what things we need to learn , we do not know these things : so what in the world would we do with a free will if such a thing existed : Answer : We wouldn’t have a clue , which is of course why CHRIST did not give us a free will : WE ARE JUST CLAY IN THE GREAT POTTERS HANDS , and thank God , no one can do a better job then God! PHILIPPIANS 1 ( 6 ) : ” He which began a good work in you will continue it unto the day of CHRIST . ” : He began it , not us , and he will finish it not us ! PHILIPPIANS 2 ( 13 ) : ” For IT IS GOD WHICH WORKETH IN YOU , BOTH TO WILL AND TO DO OF HIS GOOD PLEASURE ” : GOD NOT US ! This is solely the work of God : to say that man has any part in it is falsely exalting man : usurping the work of God and falsely placing it in man’s hands : an obvious blasphemy against God , and it is widely taught in the mainstream churches, and needs to be exposed for the blasphemy that it is ! EPHESIANS 2 ( 8-10 ) : 8 : ” For by grace are you saved through faith, AND THAT NOT OF YOURSELVES, it is the gift OF GOD ” 9 : ” NOT OF WORKS LEST ANY MAN SHOULD BOAST ” 10 : ” For we are HIS WORKMANSHIP ” Nothing of ourselves! ROMANS 13 ( 1 ) : ” THERE IS NO POWER BUT GOD ! ” No room here for man to have his own power of free will : No power but God. PSALMS 65 ( 4 ) : ” Blessed is the man whom THOU CHOOSEST AND CAUSEST TO APPROACH UNTO THEE . ” : God chooses his elect , and God causes them to come to him by his call, not us by our own supposed free will : totally unscriptural ! Choosing God would of course be a good thing to do, and if we really did choose God of our own free will we would be at least partially righteous, because choosing God would be a good thing, but such is definitely not the case as the Bible clearly says there are non righteous because we do not have the power to come to God of our own will as CHRIST clearly says in JOHN 6 ( 44 ) : ” No man can come to me unless THE FATHER DRAWS HIM . ” : ONLY THE FATHER CAN DRAW HIM : HE CANNOT COME OF HIS OWN POWER !
You've listed a lot of scripture fragments out of context, but not of them actually support your proposal that fallen man does not have the ability to come to Christ in faith upon hearing the gospel.
Let's go through them:
John 1:12-13: "
Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God."
By quoting only the last fragment of this verse, you obscure the point that it is only those who receive Him and believe who are given the right to *become* children of God. The birth follows the belief! The new birth is by God's will, not by a physical couple coming together or a human willing himself to become a new creation. How does this new birth as children of God happen? First by believers being given the Spirit, who transforms our hearts and minds. Then literally at the judgement when we receive new spiritual bodies, so we no longer have a sin nature and can enter the kingdom as God's children.
'Receive' in this passage is the Greek lambanó: to take, receive, which clearly shows the v
olition and active acceptance of the person taking the gift.
Strong's Greek: 2983. λαμβάνω (lambanó) -- to take, receive
Rom 9:16: This entire chapter is about God's choice in opening the gospel up to the Gentiles and not restricting it to the Jews, and that God was not wrong to make the Jewish people or harden them in their disbelief so that Christ would be crucified and mercy given to other nations. It is also about God's sovereignty over history and the gospel plan. Earthly kings and leaders might have their own plans for inheritance and conquest, but God is supreme and can override that. Rom 9:16 specifically is in reference to God choosing Jacob and not Esau before they were born - it wasn't up to their own will in life as to what their destiny would be; God had pre-chosen that His people would come through Jacob.
There is nothing in the context of this passage which would make it give a hidden meaning that God selects some individuals to have faith and deliberately keeps others in their fallen nature so they can never have faith.
James 1:18: "He chose to give us birth through the word of truth, that we might be a kind of firstfruits of all he created."
In context, this passage is about believers. He chose to give
believers, the brothers and sisters in Christ, birth through the word of truth. The new birth follows belief, and there is no way to pull out of this passage any hint that it could come prior. I Pet 1:23 and Rom 8:23-24 are in the same vein. The believer's new birth is by the power of the Spirit, not by our own will or works of righteousness.
Eph 1:11-14: "In him we were also chosen, having been predestined according to the plan of him who works out everything in conformity with the purpose of his will, in order that we, who were the first to put our hope in Christ, might be for the praise of his glory. And you also were included in Christ when you heard the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation. When you believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession—to the praise of his glory."
Again, the fragment you quote is out of context and doesn't support your view. Who is the chapter written to? "
the faithful in Christ Jesus." Eph 1:11-14 specifically deals with two groups - Jewish believers and Gentile believers, as Paul designates by 'us' vs. 'you' - but in both cases they are believers!
So in this passage, Paul shows that Jewish believers were chosen, predestined according to God's plan, so that they could be to the praise of God's glory as the first to trust in Christ. (E.g., the blessing to the nations coming through Israel.) They weren't chosen 'to believe' - nothing in the chapter says that.
If you read the rest of the chapter, you will see that this selection and predestination is for believers to be holy, redeemed, adopted as sons, forgiven, etc. - not so that they will believe!
And the second group, the Gentile believers? They were not included because they were pre-selected.
They were included when they heard the gospel and believed. Only then were they marked with the seal of the Holy Spirit and then included among those who are God's possession, inheriting all the predestined promises that Jewish believers have on adoption, forgiveness, holiness, etc.
Heb 12: Here your fragment suffers from a common misunderstanding do to bad translation. The Greek 'archégos' means 'the first in a long procession'; the founder of a movement or a file-leader; a pioneer. It does not mean 'author' as in to make or write something. Jesus is the first in procession and the founder of our faith as He is firstborn among many brethren (
Rom 8:28-30), and through Him we receive the promise of the Spirit (
Gal 3:13-14). It is His life and teachings we look to - without Him there would be no Christians to follow Christ!
Heb 5:8-9 clarifies this even further: ""Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered and, once made perfect (finished),
he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him."
He became the source of salvation *for those who obey (repent and turn in faith) - He didn't somehow become their obedience.
Christ finishes us/perfects us by refining us as we walk with Him, such as in I Pet 1:3-11, Rom 1, Phil 2:1-18, Eph 6:10-20, James 1:2-8, Rom 8:28-29, etc. We are conformed to Christ as we abide in Him.
Eph 2:8-10: Here your quote suffers from another misinterpretation.
"Faith" is not the gift of God mentioned in Eph 8 - that rendering is impossible in the Greek. 'Faith' and 'grace' are in the feminine gender, but the gift of God is in the neuter gender. In Greek, this then applies the 'gift' to the entire clause. The gift is our salvation, by grace and through faith! Man doesn't 'earn' salvation by faith; God chose faith as the criteria by which he freely bestows salvation as a gift, not an earned reward.
[More here:
Question: What does it mean that it is by grace we have been saved, through faith, and that this is not of ourselves but is the gift of God?
See Answer:
What does it mean that it is by grace we have been saved, through faith, and that this is not of ourselves but is the gift of God?]
Faith is not a work. Turning to God in faith is not a work. Nowhere in scripture is faith treated as a work, nor is it or claimed that it would be like a work if man had the free ability to respond in faith. Faith is in every way contrasted with works of righteousness or any other reason to boast.
[Question: What does it mean in Rom 3:27 that boasting is excluded because of the law that requires faith?
See Answer:
What does it mean in Rom 3:27 that boasting is excluded because of the law that requires faith?]