Do you believe God does NOT love everyone?

HypnoToad

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then what are we talking about then?
We're talking about whether or not God loves everyone. God doesn't have to love everyone equally in order to love everyone.

you do understand that these people he does love this other way(whatever that way is even supposed to be) are going to spend eternity in hell fire?
Of course. I don't see where I've denied that or ever even hinted at that not being the case.

I suppose calling God's common grace 'love' is more humanistic, but it doesn't make much sense considering their ultimate end and the LORD's ability to stop it.
It makes complete sense if you read post #136.
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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We're talking about whether or not God loves everyone. God doesn't have to love everyone equally in order to love everyone.

he does if he has the ability to stop people from experiencing eternal wrath and does nothing about it. that's not love friend, that's depraved indifference.

It makes complete sense if you read post #136.

same thing. he has the ability to stop it and doesn't. that's not love, that depraved indifference.
 
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Tree of Life

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Really? Love seems to be the supreme ethic with God (love God, love your neighbor, the entire law is based on that). If God loves us and wants love in return, it has to be freely given; forced love is meaningless. If it has to be freely given, then freedom of the will must be provided, which means accepting all consequences of the exercise of that freedom of will, which includes accepting that those who reject Him must be judged accordingly. And that, in turn, means God's judgment of the unbelievers *IS* based on His love for them.

The constraints you put on what must obtain in order for God’s love to be genuine are a product of human philosophy and foreign to Scripture.
 
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bbbbbbb

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Wow. Seriously??

How many times do I have to say that I am NOT claiming that God loves everyone equally?

How many times do I have to say that "God loves everyone" does NOT mean "equally", does NOT mean "in the same way", does NOT mean "to the same degree"?

It's just baffling how so many people simply can't/won't read.

Well, I, for one, did read some time ago and did comprehend, and opted off this thread. Now I am reading it for my personal amusement.
 
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nonaeroterraqueous

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Are any of you going to respond to the follow up in post #78?

I never feel obligated to respond to anyone for any reason. Had you been upfront about your intent in your original post, I would have addressed both points in a single post, instead of coming back and dealing with an Aha! response. I usually don't revisit a thread I've already responded to unless I'm really bored.

4. The problem must be with something else - (briefly explain what you think it is)

There is no problem. My last post was just as applicable to this issue. The egret eats the fish. The egret thinks it a great good. The fish thinks it a horrible catastrophe.

God is good, and God is love. Your logical comparison is good enough, but the way I see it you have been hoist by your own petard, as the cliche goes (a petard was essentially a directed bomb, and it was known to ignite prematurely and blast the wielder into the air). Inasmuch as there is no good in Hell, and those who go there are deprived of it, the same can be said of love. The fact that people go to Hell is proof that they are not loved at all, because they are deprived of all good. With one goes the other.

You might argue that while they lived they were loved and were endowed with goodness from God, but the fact remains that there are currently people in Hell, and they receive no goodness from God, and they evince no apparent love from him, either, whatever they were, previously. You might argue that they once had his love, and lost it (though I would argue that God's love lasts forever and can never be lost), in the same way that they received his goodness and then lost it. Either way, when people are in Hell, there is no sane reason to expect that they are being loved by God any more than that they are receiving goodness from him. By linking the two, you have taken the nonobjective (his love) and defined it by the objective thing that we do know for sure (his goodness). There is no goodness for those in Hell; therefore there is no love for those in Hell; therefore, because there are actually people in Hell, there are necessarily people whom God does not love. By linking goodness with love, you've destroyed the point that you set out to prove.

God endows this world with a measure of goodness, which is the outpouring of his love. Anyone who breathes the air of this world will benefit from both, but it would be folly for everyone to take it too personally. For one man, it is a fortunate coincidence, before he goes to Hell. For another, it is his personal gift, of which he is to receive abundantly in Heaven. As I said, God endows this world with a measure of goodness, just as in John 3:16, God so loved the world. God does love the world, and Sam is in the world, and Sam benefits abundantly from it, and Sam is going to Hell all the same. On the personal level, it looks like God does not love and is not good to everyone, but on the general level he is both love and goodness to the whole world. Without God's love and goodness this world would be Hell, and it is only by his mercy that such is not the case. Yes, he is good, but he is not good to everyone, and he is love, but he is not love to everyone. All that he does is good, and all that he does is loving, and everything that he leaves to its own nature, doing nothing to it, becomes part of Hell.
 
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HypnoToad

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he does if he has the ability to stop people from experiencing eternal wrath and does nothing about it. that's not love friend, that's depraved indifference.
Does nothing?? Does your Bible not have the whole Jesus part in it?

same thing. he has the ability to stop it and doesn't. that's not love, that depraved indifference.
Again, He *DID* do something - Jesus.

Further, by your answer to the first follow up, why shouldn't we just conclude that the most plausible reason for your reaction is your flawed understanding of what love is due to man's corruption from the fall?
 
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HypnoToad

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The constraints you put on what must obtain in order for God’s love to be genuine are a product of human philosophy and foreign to Scripture.
You have already admitted God does, in fact, love everyone. Thanks for sharing, though.
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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Does nothing?? Does your Bible not have the whole Jesus part in it?


Again, He *DID* do something - Jesus.

Further, by your answer to the first follow up, why shouldn't we just conclude that the most plausible reason for your reaction is your flawed understanding of what love is due to man's corruption from the fall?

unless you're a universalist Jesus' sacrifice wasn't for everyone.
 
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HypnoToad

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unless you're a universalist Jesus' sacrifice wasn't for everyone.
Dying for everyone doesn't require saving everyone.

2 Corinthians 5:14-15 "For the love of Christ controls us, since we have concluded this, that Christ died for all; therefore all have died. And he died for all so that those who live should no longer live for themselves but for him who died for them and was raised."

1 John 2:2 - "and he himself is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for our sins but also for the whole world."
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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Dying for everyone doesn't require saving everyone.

2 Corinthians 5:14-15 "For the love of Christ controls us, since we have concluded this, that Christ died for all; therefore all have died. And he died for all so that those who live should no longer live for themselves but for him who died for them and was raised."

1 John 2:2 - "and he himself is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for our sins but also for the whole world."

1. 2 cor 5:14-15 should be interpreted in light of revelation 5:9(same for 1 timothy 2:1-6). all kinds, not every single person.

2. taking 1 john 2:2 at face value leads to universalism as it says He has atoned for the sins of all which means every single person has peace with God through Christ.

3. if he died to save His people from their sins(matthew 1:21), and died for all, and fails to save most people then you have a God who is a colossal failure. if He only intended to save some and accomplishes that then you have a God who does not love everyone but only some.


also, what about judas?
 
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HypnoToad

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1. 2 cor 5:14-15 should be interpreted in light of revelation 5:9
I don't see why, other than because you say so.

(same for 1 timothy 2:1-6). all kinds, not every single person.
I don't see where that is stated in that passage.

2. taking 1 john 2:2 at face value leads to universalism as it says He has atoned for the sins of all which means every single person has peace with God through Christ.
Being offered for all doesn't require all to accept that offering.

3. if he died to save His people from their sins(matthew 1:21), and died for all, and fails to save most people then you have a God who is a colossal failure. if He only intended to save some and accomplishes that then you have a God who does not love everyone but only some.
False. God succeeded in what He set out to do - provide a possibility for all to be saved. The fact that some reject that way is their failure, not God's.

also, what about judas?
What about him?
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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I don't see why, other than because you say so.

universalism then?

I don't see where that is stated in that passage.

universalism it is...

Being offered for all doesn't require all to accept that offering.

False. God succeeded in what He set out to do - provide a possibility for all to be saved. The fact that some reject that way is their failure, not God's.

nope, matthew 1:21 isn't about what Christ would try to do but what He would actually accomplish which is to save His people from their sins. if he died to save everyone but failed, then God is a failure. if He only died to save some, then He doesn't love everyone. john 6:37-45 and john 10:22-30 tell us he didn't come here for everyone and those who would be saved wouldn't be snatched away by anything or anyone.

salvation is not an offer we can except or reject. it is an effectual act of God that He accomplishes without fail.

judas not only wasn't saved but was damned from the get-go. apparently God didn't love judas.
 
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HypnoToad

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universalism then?

universalism it is...
You keep missing it, so I'll point it out again: universalism is NOT the only other option.

You insist that "dying for everyone" = "saves everyone". They are NOT equivalent.


nope, matthew 1:21 isn't about what Christ would try to do but what He would actually accomplish which is to save His people from their sins. if he died to save everyone but failed, then God is a failure.
He didn't die to save everyone - He died to provide the chance to everyone.

if He only died to save some, then He doesn't love everyone.
You've provided no justification for the claim that the only way God can love a person is to save them.

salvation is not an offer we can except or reject. it is an effectual act of God that He accomplishes without fail.
I don't doubt that is your opinion. Yet it remains unsubstantiated.

judas not only wasn't saved but was damned from the get-go. apparently God didn't love judas.
Reference missing.
 
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S.O.J.I.A.

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You keep missing it, so I'll point it out again: universalism is NOT the only other option.

You insist that "dying for everyone" = "saves everyone". They are NOT equivalent.



He didn't die to save everyone - He died to provide the chance to everyone.


You've provided no justification for the claim that the only way God can love a person is to save them.


I don't doubt that is your opinion. Yet it remains unsubstantiated.


Reference missing.

I actually gave you the scriptural references of john 6:37-45 and john 10:22-30. care to deal with those?

the atoning sacrifice of Christ is part of God's method of salvation. the Father choosing the elect(per the references I've already mentioned) Christ dying on the cross as the lamb of God taking away the sins of those elect, and the deposit of the Holy Spirit to sanctify the ones chosen.

let me ask you this:

do you believe God has put out the exact same effort to save every single person?



you're not aware of the story of judas?
 
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HypnoToad

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I actually gave you the scriptural references of john 6:37-45 and john 10:22-30. care to deal with those?
John 6 - it states that all who come are first drawn, and you're trying to equate that to all who are drawn also come, which does not necessarily follow.

John 10 - doesn't actually say that refusing to follow & not being His sheep wasn't their own choice.

the atoning sacrifice of Christ is part of God's method of salvation. the Father choosing the elect(per the references I've already mentioned)
You mean per your selective interpretation of those references.

let me ask you this:
do you believe God has put out the exact same effort to save every single person?
"Effort" doesn't apply to an omnipotent being. Or, can you define a point at which God would get tired? Do you think He can wear Himself out?

you're not aware of the story of judas?
I didn't ask for the story of Judas. I asked for a reference backing up what you claim about Judas.
 
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98cwitr

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I would have got to this a bit sooner, but I’ve been busy lately. Anyway, the four remaining respondents have all answered, so we can move on.

What we’ve established so far is:
  1. “God is good” means God is always good, everything He does falls under the category of good/righteous
  2. Things seen as possibly not good done by God are due to man’s fallen understanding, what God does is still actually good/righteous
  3. God can exhibit seemingly paradoxical qualities while not actually being contradictory; us not being able to completely understand that quality does not preclude its rational acceptability.

On those premises, I’m confused by the claim, “God does not love everyone.”

Why does “God is good” mean God is ALWAYS good, yet “God is love” (1 John 4:8, 16) means God is only SOMETIMES love?

Because God is Love does not equate to "God loves everyone." God is the essence of Love. Without God, Love cannot exist within us.

Why is it that, when seeing something as not good done by God, it must be an error in the reader’s judgment of good, yet when seeing something as unloving done by God, it is supposedly NOT an error in the reader’s judgment of love?

Do you see the destruction of the wicked by the hands of God as bad? We do not judge love, but go on the definition defined in Scripture. As I pointed out in my other thread, Love keeps no record of wrongs, and since a recording of wrongs is kept by God for judging the damned by them, the only conclusion is that God does not love them. (God forgive me if I'm wrong here)

Does our fallen nature only extend to our understanding of good yet somehow left our understanding of love unaffected?

Very much true, but we trust that the Holy Spirit will guide us in truth. If you read 1 Cor 13, and see love keeps no record of wrongs, and know/believe people will go to hell, I ask how you reconcile that.

If part of that reason is “well, it says here that God “hates” so-and-so,” then acceptance of point 3 should eliminate that reason. If we can accept the Trinity is rational in part because God is not limited to existing the way we exist, then it stands to reason that God also is not limited to loving/hating the way we love/hate, and while seeming paradoxical, God loving & hating the same person is still rationally acceptable. Add to that the fact that it can be argued that indifference, not hate, is the actual opposite of love, completely eliminating the situation from being paradoxical in the first place.

Again, this does not hinge on our own understandings as much as it hinges on what is written in Scripture. If it were not written as it is, I would believe differently.
 
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Hammster

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I don’t have anything to add to what’s been responded to so far. But to be clear, Jesus said

For the Son of Man came to seek and to save the lost." - Luke 19:10

Now He’s either successful or an abject failure.
 
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bbbbbbb

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I don’t have anything to add to what’s been responded to so far. But to be clear, Jesus said

For the Son of Man came to seek and to save the lost." - Luke 19:10

Now He’s either successful or an abject failure.

Actually, Luke accidentally forgot to put in (some of) between save and the.
 
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